Printable version — Practice Test 10
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Practice Test 10
298 questions · 5 separately timed sections. Time each section strictly, as shown at the start of each section.
Section 1: Verbal Skills
60 questions — Time limit: 16 minutes
Choose the word that means the same or about the same as the underlined word.
1. Vanquish most nearly means
(A) rescue
(B) conquer
(C) surrender
(D) admire
2. Immense most nearly means
(A) enormous
(B) tiny
(C) ordinary
(D) distant
3. Petty most nearly means
(A) generous
(B) enormous
(C) honest
(D) trivial
4. Genial most nearly means
(A) clever
(B) wealthy
(C) friendly
(D) nervous
5. Steadfast most nearly means
(A) loyal
(B) fearful
(C) sudden
(D) foolish
6. Scoff most nearly means
(A) applaud
(B) sneer
(C) whisper
(D) obey
7. Prominent most nearly means
(A) hidden
(B) gentle
(C) notable
(D) foolish
8. Gloomy most nearly means
(A) cheerful
(B) dismal
(C) crowded
(D) polite
9. Agile most nearly means
(A) clumsy
(B) loud
(C) honest
(D) nimble
10. Brawny most nearly means
(A) muscular
(B) timid
(C) slender
(D) clever
11. Mar most nearly means
(A) polish
(B) praise
(C) spoil
(D) gather
12. Plummet most nearly means
(A) climb
(B) plunge
(C) wander
(D) shine
13. Jagged most nearly means
(A) uneven
(B) smooth
(C) cheerful
(D) hollow
14. Mingle most nearly means
(A) separate
(B) shout
(C) hurry
(D) mix
15. Hefty most nearly means
(A) tiny
(B) polite
(C) heavy
(D) sudden
Choose the word that means the opposite of the word in capital letters.
16. PRISTINE means the opposite of
(A) spotless
(B) fragile
(C) filthy
(D) cheerful
17. AFFLUENT means the opposite of
(A) impoverished
(B) wealthy
(C) influential
(D) cautious
18. HAMPER means the opposite of
(A) obstruct
(B) gather
(C) decorate
(D) assist
19. VIBRANT means the opposite of
(A) lively
(B) dull
(C) gentle
(D) narrow
20. SINISTER means the opposite of
(A) harmless
(B) wicked
(C) gloomy
(D) clever
21. ELATED means the opposite of
(A) thrilled
(B) confused
(C) exhausted
(D) dejected
22. PROFOUND means the opposite of
(A) deep
(B) shallow
(C) sincere
(D) quiet
23. CONFORM means the opposite of
(A) obey
(B) agree
(C) rebel
(D) vanish
24. PROHIBIT means the opposite of
(A) forbid
(B) punish
(C) announce
(D) permit
Choose the word that best completes the analogy.
25. Permit is to forbid as strengthen is to
(A) reinforce
(B) toughen
(C) weaken
(D) sustain
26. Glad is to joyful as tidy is to
(A) neat
(B) messy
(C) plain
(D) loud
27. Nudge is to shove as sip is to
(A) taste
(B) pour
(C) swallow
(D) gulp
28. Bristle is to brush as tooth is to
(A) gum
(B) comb
(C) mouth
(D) handle
29. Director is to film as playwright is to
(A) audience
(B) stage
(C) curtain
(D) play
30. Flame is to warmth as lamp is to
(A) light
(B) shade
(C) bulb
(D) switch
31. Emerald is to gem as maple is to
(A) leaf
(B) syrup
(C) tree
(D) wood
32. Raisin is to grape as prune is to
(A) date
(B) plum
(C) fruit
(D) wrinkle
33. Dove is to peace as owl is to
(A) night
(B) feathers
(C) flight
(D) wisdom
34. Usher is to theater as cashier is to
(A) store
(B) money
(C) receipt
(D) aisle
Choose the word that does not belong with the others.
35. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) crab
(B) lobster
(C) shrimp
(D) oyster
36. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) pine
(B) oak
(C) spruce
(D) cedar
37. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) trowel
(B) rod
(C) reel
(D) hook
38. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) locomotive
(B) caboose
(C) boxcar
(D) minivan
39. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) rummy
(B) bridge
(C) dominoes
(D) blackjack
40. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) weightless
(B) heavy
(C) hefty
(D) massive
41. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) root
(B) stem
(C) whisker
(D) leaf
42. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) stethoscope
(B) chisel
(C) thermometer
(D) syringe
43. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) tumble
(B) plunge
(C) topple
(D) soar
44. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) loafers
(B) cleats
(C) running shoes
(D) sneakers
45. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) lantern
(B) mirror
(C) chandelier
(D) flashlight
46. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) pancakes
(B) omelet
(C) waffles
(D) lasagna
47. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) whisper
(B) mutter
(C) creak
(D) mumble
48. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) moose
(B) cow
(C) pig
(D) goat
49. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) chin
(B) elbow
(C) cheek
(D) brow
50. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) spotless
(B) pristine
(C) grimy
(D) immaculate
If the first two statements are true, decide whether the third statement is true, false, or uncertain.
51. Tomás lives farther from school than Greta. Greta lives farther from school than Hassan. Tomás lives farther from school than Hassan. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
52. Some of the paintings in the gallery are landscapes. Some of the paintings in the gallery were painted this year. Some of the landscapes in the gallery were painted this year. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
53. Delia's backpack is heavier than Corinne's backpack. Corinne's backpack is heavier than Marcus's backpack. Marcus's backpack is heavier than Delia's backpack. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
54. Every jar in the pantry has a handwritten label. The jar of strawberry jam is in the pantry. The jar of strawberry jam has a handwritten label. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
55. Yuki finished the race faster than Priscilla. Yuki finished the race faster than Bennett. Priscilla finished the race faster than Bennett. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
56. No book on the top shelf is a paperback. The novel Odette is holding is a paperback. The novel Odette is holding is on the top shelf. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
57. A bag of walnuts costs the same as a bag of almonds. A bag of almonds costs less than a bag of cashews. A bag of walnuts costs less than a bag of cashews. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
58. The math club meets before the art club. The art club meets before the drama club. The drama club meets before the math club. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
59. All of the muffins on the tray are banana muffins. Some banana muffins contain walnuts. Some of the muffins on the tray contain walnuts. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
60. The oak tree in the yard is taller than the maple tree. The maple tree is taller than the birch tree. The oak tree is taller than the birch tree. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
Section 2: Quantitative Skills
52 questions — Time limit: 30 minutes
Choose the number that should come next (or that fits the blank) in the series.
1. Look at this series: 7, 13, 19, 25, 31, ... What number should come next?
(A) 37
(B) 36
(C) 38
(D) 34
2. Look at this series: 88, 79, 70, 61, ... What number should come next?
(A) 53
(B) 51
(C) 52
(D) 50
3. Look at this series: 3, 12, 48, 192, ... What number should come next?
(A) 384
(B) 768
(C) 576
(D) 772
4. Look at this series: 512, 128, 32, 8, ... What number should come next?
(A) 4
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) 2
5. Look at this series: 5, 8, 13, 20, 29, ... What number should come next?
(A) 40
(B) 38
(C) 42
(D) 39
6. Look at this series: 3, 7, 13, 21, 31, ... What number should come next?
(A) 41
(B) 45
(C) 43
(D) 42
7. Look at this series: 3, 12, 9, 36, 33, ... What number should come next?
(A) 30
(B) 99
(C) 135
(D) 132
8. Look at this series: 3, 8, 16, 21, 42, ... What number should come next?
(A) 84
(B) 47
(C) 46
(D) 48
9. Look at this series: 4, 20, 9, 16, 14, 12, ... What number should come next?
(A) 19
(B) 8
(C) 20
(D) 18
10. Look at this series: 7, 50, 11, __, 15, 30. What number should fill the blank?
(A) 13
(B) 45
(C) 40
(D) 60
11. Look at this series: 49, 64, 81, 100, ... What number should come next?
(A) 120
(B) 110
(C) 144
(D) 121
12. Look at this series: 64, 125, 216, 343, ... What number should come next?
(A) 512
(B) 490
(C) 500
(D) 448
13. Look at this series: 1, 3, 4, 7, 11, ... What number should come next?
(A) 17
(B) 18
(C) 19
(D) 22
14. Look at this series: 1, 6, 16, 36, 76, ... What number should come next?
(A) 152
(B) 158
(C) 156
(D) 150
15. Look at this series: 2, 5, 14, 41, 122, ... What number should come next?
(A) 365
(B) 366
(C) 364
(D) 246
16. Look at this series: 0.9, 1.8, 3.6, 7.2, ... What number should come next?
(A) 10.8
(B) 15.4
(C) 13.4
(D) 14.4
17. Look at this series: 0.8, 1.4, 2.0, 2.6, ... What number should come next?
(A) 3.0
(B) 3.1
(C) 3.2
(D) 3.4
18. Look at this series: 2, 10, __, 250, 1250. What number should fill the blank?
(A) 130
(B) 50
(C) 30
(D) 20
Examine the quantities and choose the best answer.
19. (a) the perimeter of a square with side 8 centimeters (b) the perimeter of a rectangle 10 centimeters long and 6 centimeters wide (c) the perimeter of an equilateral triangle with side 11 centimeters
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal.
(B) (a) and (b) are equal, and each is less than (c).
(C) (c) is less than (a) and (b).
(D) (a) is greater than (b) and (c).
20. (a) the area of a square with side 9 inches (b) the area of a rectangle 15 inches long and 6 inches wide (c) the area of a triangle with base 20 inches and height 8 inches
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal.
(B) (b) is less than (a) and (c).
(C) (a) and (c) are equal, and each is less than (b).
(D) (c) is less than (a), and (a) is less than (b).
21. (a) the sum of the interior angle measures of a hexagon (b) the sum of the interior angle measures of a pentagon (c) the number of degrees in two full circles
(A) (a) and (c) are equal, and each is greater than (b).
(B) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal.
(C) (b) is greater than (a) and (c).
(D) (a) is greater than (b) and greater than (c).
22. (a) the measure of each exterior angle of a regular hexagon (b) the measure of each exterior angle of a square (c) the measure of each exterior angle of a regular pentagon
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal.
(B) (b) is less than (a) and (c).
(C) (a) is less than (c), and (c) is less than (b).
(D) (a) and (c) are equal, and each is less than (b).
23. (a) the volume of a cube with edges of 5 centimeters (b) the volume of a rectangular box 10 centimeters long, 5 centimeters wide, and 2 centimeters high (c) the volume of a rectangular box 4 centimeters long, 5 centimeters wide, and 5 centimeters high
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal.
(B) (b) and (c) are equal, and each is less than (a).
(C) (a) is less than (b) and (c).
(D) (b) is greater than (a) and (c).
24. (a) the radius of a circle with a diameter of 20 centimeters (b) the length of one side of a square with a perimeter of 36 centimeters (c) the length of one side of an equilateral triangle with a perimeter of 33 centimeters
(A) (b) is less than (a), and (a) is less than (c).
(B) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal.
(C) (c) is less than (a) and (b).
(D) (a) and (c) are equal, and each is greater than (b).
25. (a) the number of degrees the minute hand of a clock turns in 20 minutes (b) the number of degrees the hour hand of a clock turns in 4 hours (c) the measure of each interior angle of a regular pentagon
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal.
(B) (c) is greater than (a) and (b).
(C) (a) is greater than (b) and (c).
(D) (a) and (b) are equal, and each is greater than (c).
26. (a) the supplement of a 100° angle (b) the complement of a 25° angle (c) the supplement of a 110° angle
(A) (b) is less than (c), and (c) is less than (a).
(B) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal.
(C) (a) is less than (b) and (c).
(D) (b) is greater than (a) and (c).
27. (a) the number of edges of a square pyramid (b) the number of edges of a triangular prism (c) the number of edges of a cube
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal.
(B) (c) is less than (a) and (b).
(C) (a) is less than (b), and (b) is less than (c).
(D) (b) is greater than (a) and (c).
28. (a) 20% of 90 (b) 1/4 of 72 (c) 0.5 × 36
(A) (a) is greater than (b) and (c).
(B) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal.
(C) (b) and (c) are equal, and each is less than (a).
(D) (c) is greater than (a) and (b).
29. (a) 5 to the second power (b) 3 to the third power (c) 2 to the fifth power
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal.
(B) (c) is less than (a) and (b).
(C) (a) is greater than (b) and (c).
(D) (a) is less than (b), and (b) is less than (c).
30. (a) (4 + 2) × 5 (b) 4 + 2 × 5 (c) 4 × 2 + 5
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal.
(B) (a) is less than (b) and (c).
(C) (a) is greater than (b), and (b) is greater than (c).
(D) (b) and (c) are equal, and each is less than (a).
31. (a) 3/5 + 1/10 (b) 0.7 (c) 3/4
(A) (a) and (b) are equal, and each is less than (c).
(B) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal.
(C) (c) is less than (a) and (b).
(D) (a) is greater than (b) and (c).
32. (a) the average of 12, 18, and 27 (b) 2/5 of 50 (c) 0.9 × 20
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal.
(B) (a) is greater than (b) and (c).
(C) (b) and (c) are equal, and each is greater than (a).
(D) (c) is less than (a), and (a) is less than (b).
33. (a) 7 × 6 (b) 132 ÷ 3 (c) 38 + 5
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal.
(B) (a) is less than (c), and (c) is less than (b).
(C) (b) is less than (a) and (c).
(D) (a) is greater than (b) and (c).
34. (a) 40% of 15 (b) 15% of 40 (c) 1/3 of 15
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal.
(B) (c) is greater than (a) and (b).
(C) (a) and (b) are equal, and each is greater than (c).
(D) (a) is greater than (b) and (c).
35. (a) 5/8 (b) 0.6 (c) 2/3
(A) (b) is less than (a), and (a) is less than (c).
(B) (c) is less than (a) and (b).
(C) (a) and (c) are equal, and each is greater than (b).
(D) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal.
Work each problem and choose the best answer.
36. What number is 9 more than 20% of 65?
(A) 13
(B) 4
(C) 22
(D) 74
37. What number is 2/5 of 40, decreased by 6?
(A) 16
(B) 22
(C) 10
(D) 34
38. 2/3 of what number is 24?
(A) 36
(B) 16
(C) 24
(D) 12
39. 25% of what number is 17?
(A) 4.25
(B) 42
(C) 85
(D) 68
40. What is the product of 7 and 8, decreased by the quotient of 54 and 6?
(A) 56
(B) 47
(C) 9
(D) 65
41. What number is 8 less than the square of 6?
(A) 36
(B) 28
(C) 44
(D) 4
42. What number is 6 more than the cube of 3?
(A) 27
(B) 21
(C) 15
(D) 33
43. What is the average of 16, 24, and 38?
(A) 26
(B) 78
(C) 39
(D) 38
44. What number is 4 times the sum of 12 and 7?
(A) 19
(B) 55
(C) 76
(D) 40
45. What number is 6 times the difference between 21 and 14?
(A) 7
(B) 13
(C) 210
(D) 42
46. When a number is divided by 3 and then increased by 7, the result is 19. What is the number?
(A) 12
(B) 36
(C) 57
(D) 4
47. A number is multiplied by 6, and the result is decreased by 5 to give 43. What is the number?
(A) 8
(B) 48
(C) 7
(D) 9
48. What number is 40% of 70, decreased by 5?
(A) 28
(B) 33
(C) 65
(D) 23
49. What is 20% of 45 added to 50% of 26?
(A) 9
(B) 13
(C) 22
(D) 35
50. The sum of two numbers is 64, and their difference is 18. What is the larger number?
(A) 23
(B) 41
(C) 46
(D) 82
51. If 3/5 of a number is 27, what is 2/5 of that number?
(A) 18
(B) 45
(C) 27
(D) 9
52. What number squared, minus 4, equals 60?
(A) 64
(B) 7
(C) 9
(D) 8
Section 3: Reading
62 questions — Time limit: 25 minutes
Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
1. Which sentence best states the main idea of the passage?
(A) Priya was a much faster hiker than the narrator and always reached the top first.
(B) Cedar Ridge is the most dangerous hiking trail in the entire region.
(C) An easy, familiar hike turns risky when fog rolls in, teaching the narrator to prepare before setting out.
(D) The narrator decides never to hike Cedar Ridge again.
2. According to the passage, what did the narrator leave behind at home that morning?
(A) A jacket to keep warm
(B) The paper map
(C) The only water bottle
(D) A small compass
3. What made it hard for the narrator to tell which way they had come?
(A) All of the trail signs had been removed.
(B) Night had fallen and it was completely dark.
(C) A heavy rain had washed the path away.
(D) A thick fog rolled in and hid the view.
4. How did Priya decide which direction would lead them back?
(A) She called for help on her cell phone.
(B) She used her map and compass and followed the slope down toward the creek.
(C) She waited for the fog to lift on its own.
(D) She followed their footprints back up the trail.
5. As used in the passage, the word steady most nearly means
(A) calm and firm
(B) loud and sudden
(C) slow and lazy
(D) cold and damp
6. It can be inferred that the narrator teased Priya about the map because the narrator
(A) did not know how to read a map at all
(B) wanted to walk more slowly than Priya
(C) felt the trail was so familiar that a map seemed unnecessary
(D) was already afraid of getting lost in the fog
7. The author's main purpose in this passage is to
(A) give step-by-step directions for climbing Cedar Ridge
(B) share a personal experience that taught the value of being prepared
(C) warn readers never to go hiking in the mountains
(D) describe the plants and animals found along the trail
8. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
(A) A Complete Guide to Mountain Trails
(B) How to Read a Compass in Five Steps
(C) Priya's Favorite Weekend Hobby
(D) The Day the Fog Taught Me to Prepare
9. Which sentence best states the main idea of the passage?
(A) A giant sequoia builds its huge body from sunlight, air, and water, and its tough bark helps it survive for thousands of years.
(B) Giant sequoias are found only in the mountains of California.
(C) Forest fires always destroy every tree standing in their path.
(D) Chlorophyll is the most valuable chemical found anywhere on Earth.
10. According to the passage, what does chlorophyll do?
(A) It pulls water up from the roots.
(B) It makes the bark thick and spongy.
(C) It releases oxygen down into the soil.
(D) It captures the energy in sunlight.
11. According to the passage, a sequoia makes sugar by combining sunlight with
(A) tannins and resin
(B) carbon dioxide and water
(C) oxygen and soil
(D) bark and needles
12. As used in the passage, the word scorches most nearly means
(A) cools down
(B) waters lightly
(C) burns the surface of
(D) knocks over
13. According to the passage, why does a passing fire usually fail to kill a giant sequoia?
(A) The tree is always too wet to catch fire.
(B) Rangers rush in and put out every fire quickly.
(C) The tree simply grows too tall for the flames to reach.
(D) Its thick bark holds little of the resin that makes many trees burn easily.
14. The passage suggests that fire can actually help giant sequoias because
(A) the heat opens their cones and clears the ground so seeds can grow
(B) the smoke keeps harmful insects away from the trees forever
(C) the ashes make the bark grow much thicker each year
(D) the flames frighten off animals that would eat the trees
15. The author's main purpose in this passage is to
(A) warn readers to stay far away from giant sequoias
(B) tell an exciting adventure story about a forest fire
(C) explain how giant sequoias make food and survive for so long
(D) compare sequoias with the small trees in a backyard
16. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
(A) The History of Firefighting in California
(B) Giant Sequoias: Built from Sunlight and Made to Last
(C) How to Plant a Small Tree in Your Yard
(D) The Many Uses of Chlorophyll in Medicine
17. Which sentence best states the main idea of the passage?
(A) The Wright brothers earned most of their money by repairing bicycles.
(B) By focusing on control and inventing wing-warping, the Wright brothers achieved the first powered, piloted flight in 1903.
(C) Kitty Hawk is the windiest place found anywhere in North Carolina.
(D) Birds are the only creatures that will ever be able to truly fly.
18. According to the passage, how did Orville and Wilbur Wright earn a living before their famous flight?
(A) They taught science classes at a university.
(B) They flew mail planes for the government.
(C) They built and repaired bicycles in a shop in Dayton, Ohio.
(D) They designed engines for early automobiles.
19. According to the passage, what was wing-warping?
(A) A system that twisted the wingtips with wires so the pilot could balance and turn the machine
(B) A powerful new engine that spun the two propellers
(C) A soft landing area built out of sand at Kitty Hawk
(D) A code the brothers used to send messages to each other
20. According to the passage, why did the Wright brothers choose Kitty Hawk for their tests?
(A) It was very close to their home in Ohio.
(B) It already had a large airport built there.
(C) It was famous for its calm, perfectly still air.
(D) It offered steady winds and soft, sandy ground for landing.
21. As used in the passage, the word clever most nearly means
(A) heavy and strong
(B) colorful and bright
(C) smart and inventive
(D) old and worn out
22. It can be inferred from the passage that the Wright brothers succeeded mainly because they
(A) understood that controlling and balancing the machine mattered as much as engine power
(B) were the first people ever to build a flying machine of any kind
(C) had far more money than any other inventors of their time
(D) copied their whole design directly from another scientist
23. The author's main purpose in this passage is to
(A) explain how to build a model airplane at home
(B) argue that flying is much safer than driving
(C) describe what it is like to visit Kitty Hawk today
(D) explain how the Wright brothers achieved the first powered flight
24. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
(A) The Story of the Modern Passenger Jet
(B) Twelve Seconds That Launched the Age of Flight
(C) A Beginner's Guide to Building Bicycles
(D) The Most Famous Beaches of North Carolina
25. Which sentence best states the main idea of the passage?
(A) Mary Anning became rich and famous by selling fossils during her lifetime.
(B) Mary Anning invented a brand-new way of searching for fossils in winter.
(C) Mary Anning was a brilliant fossil hunter who was overlooked in her time but is honored today.
(D) Mary Anning spent her life studying living sea reptiles along the English coast.
26. According to the passage, Mary Anning was born in
(A) Lyme Regis, a town on the southern coast of England
(B) a large city in the north of England
(C) a fishing village in the United States
(D) a mountain town far from the sea
27. According to the passage, how did Anning's family earn extra money?
(A) by fishing in the sea near their home
(B) by giving guided tours of the cliffs
(C) by building furniture for wealthy visitors
(D) by collecting fossils from the cliffs and selling them
28. According to the passage, why was hunting fossils in the cliffs dangerous?
(A) The fossils were sharp enough to cut her hands.
(B) The loose cliffs could collapse without warning in landslides.
(C) Wild animals lived in caves along the shore.
(D) The winter water was far too cold to enter.
29. It can be inferred from the passage that Anning did not receive proper credit mainly because
(A) her fossils turned out to be less important than scientists claimed
(B) she refused to share her discoveries with other people
(C) she preferred to keep her work a secret from everyone
(D) she was a woman and came from a poor family
30. As used in the passage, the word "rich" most nearly means
(A) full
(B) wealthy
(C) heavy
(D) colorful
31. The author's main purpose in the passage is to
(A) explain exactly how fossils form over millions of years
(B) warn readers about the dangers of climbing cliffs
(C) tell the story of Mary Anning's life and achievements
(D) compare the ichthyosaur with the plesiosaur in detail
32. Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
(A) A Beginner's Guide to Collecting Seashells
(B) Mary Anning: The Overlooked Fossil Hunter
(C) The History of the English Coast
(D) How to Stay Safe Near Steep Cliffs
33. Which sentence best states the main idea of the passage?
(A) Local elections choose the officials who run a city or town and shape people's daily lives.
(B) Local elections are far more exciting to watch than presidential elections.
(C) Voting by mail is the only fair way to hold a local election.
(D) Most people already know everything about their local candidates.
34. According to the passage, before candidates can appear on the ballot, they usually must
(A) win a national election first
(B) serve several years on the school board
(C) pay a large fee to the city government
(D) collect a certain number of signatures from residents
35. According to the passage, candidates do all of the following during a campaign EXCEPT
(A) knock on doors
(B) count the ballots after the polls close
(C) speak at community meetings
(D) hang posters
36. According to the passage, a ballot is
(A) the private booth where a voter stands
(B) the building where people go to vote
(C) a list of the candidates and the choices to be decided
(D) the machine that adds up all the votes
37. It can be inferred from the passage that a single person's vote
(A) matters less in a local election than in a national one
(B) can make a real difference in a local election
(C) is not counted unless it is mailed in early
(D) only matters during a presidential race
38. As used in the passage, the word "weight" most nearly means
(A) heaviness
(B) size
(C) burden
(D) importance
39. The author's main purpose in the passage is to
(A) explain how local elections work and why they matter
(B) persuade readers to run for mayor of their town
(C) describe the long history of voting in the United States
(D) argue that national elections are not important
40. Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
(A) How to Win a Presidential Election
(B) The Story of One Town's Mayor
(C) Local Elections and Why They Matter
(D) A History of the American Ballot
Choose the word that means the same or about the same as the underlined word.
41. a deft magician
(A) clumsy
(B) timid
(C) skillful
(D) honest
42. a speech full of rancor
(A) bitterness
(B) warmth
(C) humor
(D) praise
43. to encumber the climber
(A) assist
(B) guide
(C) praise
(D) burden
44. a curt remark
(A) friendly
(B) blunt
(C) lengthy
(D) cheerful
45. a deafening din
(A) racket
(B) silence
(C) whisper
(D) breeze
46. a livid coach
(A) calm
(B) pleased
(C) furious
(D) weary
47. to covet a prize
(A) reject
(B) ignore
(C) desire
(D) share
48. a frail patient
(A) sturdy
(B) weak
(C) restless
(D) cheerful
49. a clever ruse
(A) promise
(B) reward
(C) failure
(D) trick
50. to glean facts
(A) gather
(B) scatter
(C) hide
(D) invent
51. a dour expression
(A) cheerful
(B) gloomy
(C) puzzled
(D) gentle
52. to wield an axe
(A) drop
(B) sharpen
(C) buy
(D) handle
53. a town rife with rumors
(A) full
(B) free
(C) tired
(D) quiet
54. to defeat a foe
(A) friend
(B) leader
(C) enemy
(D) stranger
55. to rebuke a student
(A) praise
(B) scold
(C) teach
(D) excuse
56. a jaunty tune
(A) gloomy
(B) slow
(C) harsh
(D) lively
57. the gist of the story
(A) essence
(B) ending
(C) title
(D) mood
58. to toil all day
(A) rest
(B) play
(C) labor
(D) wander
59. lax security
(A) strict
(B) careless
(C) costly
(D) modern
60. to forsake a friend
(A) support
(B) greet
(C) trust
(D) abandon
61. to reach an accord
(A) agreement
(B) dispute
(C) silence
(D) contest
62. unable to fathom the reason
(A) reject
(B) doubt
(C) understand
(D) recall
Section 4: Mathematics
64 questions — Time limit: 45 minutes
Choose the best answer.
1. In the number 5,284,916, the digit 2 is in which place?
(A) hundred thousands
(B) ten thousands
(C) millions
(D) thousands
2. In the decimal 9.1476, the digit 6 is in which place?
(A) thousandths
(B) hundredths
(C) ten-thousandths
(D) tenths
3. What is 46,927 rounded to the nearest thousand?
(A) 47,000
(B) 46,000
(C) 46,900
(D) 50,000
4. Which is the best estimate of 512 × 68?
(A) 30,000
(B) 42,000
(C) 3,500
(D) 35,000
5. Which of the following numbers is prime?
(A) 87
(B) 83
(C) 91
(D) 93
6. Which of the following numbers is divisible by 12?
(A) 116
(B) 158
(C) 174
(D) 156
7. What is the greatest common factor of 32 and 48?
(A) 8
(B) 96
(C) 16
(D) 4
8. What is the least common multiple of 8 and 10?
(A) 80
(B) 40
(C) 2
(D) 18
9. The sum of any three odd numbers is always
(A) even
(B) odd
(C) prime
(D) zero
10. The expression 3⁵ has a value of
(A) 243
(B) 15
(C) 125
(D) 81
11. Between which two consecutive whole numbers does √60 lie?
(A) 6 and 7
(B) 8 and 9
(C) 30 and 31
(D) 7 and 8
12. Which of the following numbers is a perfect cube?
(A) 200
(B) 100
(C) 216
(D) 180
13. What is the value of 24 − 6 × 3?
(A) 6
(B) 54
(C) 18
(D) 15
14. Which percent is equal to the fraction 4/25?
(A) 4%
(B) 25%
(C) 40%
(D) 16%
15. The decimal 0.45 is equal to which fraction in lowest terms?
(A) 45/100
(B) 4/5
(C) 9/20
(D) 9/25
16. What is the value of |7 − 10|?
(A) 3
(B) −3
(C) 17
(D) −17
17. On a number line, which of these numbers lies between −5 and −2?
(A) −6
(B) −3
(C) −1
(D) 0
18. An acute angle is an angle whose measure is
(A) exactly 90°
(B) between 90° and 180°
(C) less than 90°
(D) exactly 180°
19. A triangle in which all three sides have the same length is called
(A) an isosceles triangle
(B) a scalene triangle
(C) a right triangle
(D) an equilateral triangle
20. A polygon with exactly ten sides is called a
(A) octagon
(B) decagon
(C) heptagon
(D) nonagon
21. The diameter of any circle is always
(A) twice the length of the radius
(B) half the length of the radius
(C) equal to the radius
(D) equal to the circumference
22. Which metric unit is most appropriate for measuring the capacity of a large bottle of soda?
(A) grams
(B) meters
(C) liters
(D) kilometers
23. What is the mean (average) of the numbers 4, 8, 9, and 11?
(A) 9
(B) 32
(C) 8.5
(D) 8
24. A standard six-sided number cube is rolled once. What is the probability of rolling an even number?
(A) 1/3
(B) 1/2
(C) 1/6
(D) 2/3
Solve each problem and choose the best answer.
25. A hiking supply store received a shipment of 48 water filters. On the first day, 5/8 of them were sold. How many water filters were sold?
(A) 18
(B) 6
(C) 30
(D) 240
26. At the fossil museum shop, a clerk mixed 2/3 cup of polishing grit with 1/6 cup of finishing powder. How many cups of mixture is that in all?
(A) 5/6
(B) 3/9
(C) 1/2
(D) 1/9
27. A hiking supply store has 7.2 pounds of granola and scoops it into bags that each hold 0.6 pound. How many bags can be filled?
(A) 6.6
(B) 4.32
(C) 1.2
(D) 12
28. At the election-day bake sale, lemonade sells for $0.75 a cup. How much money is collected from selling 8 cups?
(A) $8.75
(B) $6.00
(C) $5.60
(D) $60.00
29. A backpack at the hiking supply store normally costs $80.00. During a sale it is 20% off. What is the sale price?
(A) $16.00
(B) $64.00
(C) $96.00
(D) $60.00
30. A polished ammonite fossil at the museum shop is priced at $60.00. It is marked 15% off, and then a 5% sales tax is added to the sale price. What is the total cost?
(A) $51.00
(B) $63.00
(C) $48.45
(D) $53.55
31. An election committee buys $120.00 of poster supplies before tax. A 7% sales tax is added. What is the total with tax?
(A) $128.40
(B) $8.40
(C) $111.60
(D) $127.00
32. A pair of trekking poles at the hiking supply store is marked 30% off and now sells for $42.00. What was the original price?
(A) $54.60
(B) $72.00
(C) $60.00
(D) $12.60
33. In a local election, the ratio of votes for Alvarez to votes for Brooks was 5 to 3. If 320 people voted in all, how many voted for Alvarez?
(A) 200
(B) 120
(C) 40
(D) 160
34. The fossil museum shop sells 4 mini trilobite replicas for $10.00. At that rate, how much do 10 replicas cost?
(A) $2.50
(B) $100.00
(C) $40.00
(D) $25.00
35. A brownie recipe for the election bake sale uses 3 cups of flour for every 2 cups of sugar. How many cups of flour are needed with 8 cups of sugar?
(A) 24
(B) 12
(C) 5
(D) 16
36. Solve for x: 6x - 5 = 31
(A) 36
(B) 5 1/6
(C) 6
(D) 4 1/3
37. The fossil museum charges a $15 flat fee for a tour group plus $3 for each visitor. A group paid $48 in all. How many visitors were in the group?
(A) 16
(B) 21
(C) 11
(D) 33
38. Seven more than three times a number is 34. What is the number?
(A) 9
(B) 27
(C) 13 2/3
(D) 11 1/3
39. Solve for x: x/3 + 4 = 9
(A) 39
(B) 1 2/3
(C) 5
(D) 15
40. On five days of a hiking trip, a group walked these distances in miles: 8, 12, 7, 12, and 11. What was the mean distance per day?
(A) 12
(B) 10
(C) 5
(D) 11
41. The lengths of five fossils, in centimeters, were 14, 9, 20, 11, and 18. What is the median length?
(A) 14
(B) 14 2/5
(C) 11
(D) 20
42. A roll of election banner fabric is 4 feet long. How many inches long is it?
(A) 3 1/3
(B) 16
(C) 40
(D) 48
43. A cooler at the hiking supply store holds 6 gallons of water. How many quarts is that?
(A) 1 1/2
(B) 24
(C) 10
(D) 12
44. A hiking club deposits $2,000 from its fundraiser into an account that pays 3% simple interest per year. How much interest does it earn in 4 years?
(A) $60
(B) $2,240
(C) $240
(D) $180
45. A rectangular vegetable garden measures 18 meters by 11 meters. What length of fencing is needed to go all the way around it?
(A) 29 meters
(B) 58 meters
(C) 198 meters
(D) 116 meters
46. A triangular flag has a base of 20 inches and a height of 14 inches. What is the area of the flag?
(A) 280 square inches
(B) 34 square inches
(C) 70 square inches
(D) 140 square inches
47. An L-shaped patio is made of two rectangles: one measuring 15 feet by 10 feet and one measuring 6 feet by 4 feet. What is the total area of the patio?
(A) 174 square feet
(B) 150 square feet
(C) 126 square feet
(D) 90 square feet
48. A banner is shaped like a rectangle 8 inches wide and 15 inches tall with a triangle attached at the bottom to form a point; the triangle has a base of 8 inches and a height of 9 inches. What is the total area of the banner?
(A) 120 square inches
(B) 192 square inches
(C) 156 square inches
(D) 240 square inches
49. A carton shaped like a rectangular prism is 15 inches long, 8 inches wide, and 6 inches high. What is its volume?
(A) 516 cubic inches
(B) 120 cubic inches
(C) 720 cubic inches
(D) 29 cubic inches
50. A storage box is a cube with edges 7 inches long. What is its volume?
(A) 343 cubic inches
(B) 49 cubic inches
(C) 21 cubic inches
(D) 147 cubic inches
51. In a triangle, two of the angles measure 52° and 39°. What is the measure of the third angle?
(A) 91°
(B) 89°
(C) 88°
(D) 101°
52. Two angles are complementary, and the larger angle is 4 times as large as the smaller one. What is the measure of the larger angle?
(A) 18°
(B) 144°
(C) 45°
(D) 72°
53. Two straight lines cross each other. One of the four angles formed measures 47°. What is the measure of the angle directly across from it?
(A) 133°
(B) 47°
(C) 43°
(D) 137°
54. A runner completes 24 kilometers in 2 hours at a steady pace. What is the runner's average speed?
(A) 12 kilometers per hour
(B) 48 kilometers per hour
(C) 22 kilometers per hour
(D) 26 kilometers per hour
55. A car travels at a constant speed of 60 miles per hour for 45 minutes. How far does it travel?
(A) 2,700 miles
(B) 27 miles
(C) 105 miles
(D) 45 miles
56. A train covers 165 miles at an average speed of 60 miles per hour. How long does the trip take?
(A) 2 hours 15 minutes
(B) 3 hours
(C) 2 hours 45 minutes
(D) 2 hours 5 minutes
57. A jar contains 6 red beads, 9 blue beads, and 5 white beads, all the same size. If one bead is drawn at random, what is the probability that it is blue?
(A) 9/20
(B) 9/11
(C) 1/3
(D) 9/14
58. A spinner is divided into 10 equal sections numbered 1 through 10. What is the probability that the spinner lands on a number that is NOT a multiple of 3?
(A) 3/10
(B) 1/3
(C) 1/10
(D) 7/10
59. What is the value of −9 + 4 − (−6) − 3?
(A) −14
(B) −2
(C) 4
(D) −8
60. What is the value of 3³ + 2⁵?
(A) 19
(B) 35
(C) 59
(D) 45
61. What is the value of 4 + 2 × 3²?
(A) 54
(B) 40
(C) 18
(D) 22
62. A pair of sneakers is priced at $70. A 20% discount is applied, and then a 8% sales tax is added to the discounted price. What is the total cost?
(A) $60.48
(B) $56.00
(C) $61.60
(D) $60.00
63. A snack stand sells pretzels for $2.75 each and juice boxes for $1.40 each. Dana buys 3 pretzels and 4 juice boxes. What is the total cost?
(A) $8.25
(B) $5.60
(C) $13.85
(D) $14.65
64. Malik pays for a $13.45 book and a $6.80 pen with a $50 bill. How much change should he receive?
(A) $30.25
(B) $29.75
(C) $20.25
(D) $29.25
Section 5: Language
60 questions — Time limit: 25 minutes
Look for errors in punctuation, capitalization, or usage. If there is no error, choose (D).
1. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Last Summer, the students traveled to the desert to search for ancient bones.
(B) The team brushed away loose dirt to reveal a smooth, curved fossil.
(C) Dr. Alvarez showed the class how to label each specimen in the field notebook.
(D) No mistakes.
2. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Maria arranged her display board carefully and set the small motor beside her notes.
(B) The judges asked each student to explain the purpose of the experiment.
(C) After the fair ended, the gym smelled faintly of glue and fresh paint.
(D) No mistakes.
3. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Volunteers handed out cold water to every rider who crossed the line.
(B) The course looped through the park and back along the river.
(C) Both teams jerseys were soaked with sweat by the end of the race.
(D) No mistakes.
4. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Jamal tested three kinds of soil to see which one grew the tallest beans.
(B) The experiment took two weeks he measured the plants every morning.
(C) The results surprised everyone who stopped to look at the display.
(D) No mistakes.
5. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The researchers uncovered a jawbone buried deep in the gray rock.
(B) The dig lasted all week, the team found more bones than they expected.
(C) Careful measurements helped the scientists guess the animal's size.
(D) No mistakes.
6. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The trail grew steeper as the hikers climbed above the tree line.
(B) Gray clouds gathered over the peak, so the group decided to turn back.
(C) By evening, everyone had returned safely to the cabin at the base of the mountain.
(D) No mistakes.
7. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) There is many colorful posters lined up along the gymnasium wall.
(B) One clever project used a lemon to light a tiny bulb.
(C) The principal congratulated the winners during the morning announcements.
(D) No mistakes.
8. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The mayor opened the meeting by thanking the volunteers who had cleaned the park.
(B) Residents raised their hands and waited politely for a chance to speak.
(C) The council discussed the new library, several neighbors wanted a bigger parking lot.
(D) No mistakes.
9. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The scientists carefully wrapped each fragile bone in soft cloth.
(B) A thin layer of clay had protected the fossil for millions of years.
(C) When the sun set, the crew packed up their tools and headed to camp.
(D) No mistakes.
10. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Devon and I built a small volcano that bubbled with red foam.
(B) The teacher gave the blue ribbon to Sarah and I for our project.
(C) Our poster explained the steps of the entire experiment.
(D) No mistakes.
11. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The race started near the corner of Oak street and Fifth Avenue.
(B) Fans lined the road with banners and rang cowbells for their favorites.
(C) The youngest rider finished third and grinned from ear to ear.
(D) No mistakes.
12. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The list of complaints were read aloud by the secretary at the meeting.
(B) Several parents suggested adding more streetlights along Main Street.
(C) The vote passed easily, and the meeting ended before nine o'clock.
(D) No mistakes.
13. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The racers pumped their legs hard as they neared the final hill.
(B) A light rain began to fall, but no one slowed down.
(C) Yesterday the champion crosses the finish line a full minute ahead of the others.
(D) No mistakes.
14. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The cyclists helmet was strapped on tight as she rolled up to the starting line.
(B) Riders leaned into the first curve as the crowd cheered from the fence.
(C) The race began at noon, and the leaders pulled away within the first mile.
(D) No mistakes.
15. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The museum sent two experts to help identify the strange skull.
(B) Each fossil was photographed before it left the site.
(C) Volunteers sifted the sandy soil through wide metal screens.
(D) No mistakes.
16. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Before sunrise, the hikers filled their bottles with cold water and checked the trail map one last time.
(B) Each of the hikers were carrying a heavy pack up the steep mountain trail.
(C) The narrow path wound past tall pines and a rushing stream near the ridge.
(D) No mistakes.
17. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The hikers followed the blue markers painted on the rocks.
(B) A cool breeze carried the smell of pine across the meadow.
(C) The mountain lost it's last patch of snow by the middle of July.
(D) No mistakes.
18. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The guide pointed to a distant waterfall glittering in the sunlight.
(B) As the hikers rested, one of them suddenly hears a rockslide above the trail.
(C) They ate lunch on a flat rock and watched hawks circle overhead.
(D) No mistakes.
19. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The clerk read the minutes from the previous month's gathering.
(B) Citizens debated whether to repaint the old fire station.
(C) After a long discussion, the board agreed to meet again in the spring.
(D) No mistakes.
20. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The neighbors who spoke first asked about the broken sidewalk.
(B) A reporter took notes quietly in the back row of the hall.
(C) Him and the treasurer explained how the town would spend the money.
(D) No mistakes.
21. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) We cracked two eggs into the wide mixing bowl.
(B) The griddle sizzled as the first spoonful of batter spread out.
(C) A stack of golden pancakes waited under a warm towel.
(D) No mistakes.
22. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The final heat lined up under the bright afternoon sun.
(B) We couldn't hardly hear the starter over the roaring crowd.
(C) Our teammate leaned forward and burst across the finish line.
(D) No mistakes.
23. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The morning flight lifted off just after sunrise.
(B) Fields and winding rivers spread out far below the basket.
(C) We floated quietly above lake Michigan as the fog cleared.
(D) No mistakes.
24. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The narrow trail wound between tall pines and mossy rocks.
(B) A light morning rain did not effect our plan to reach the ridge.
(C) We spotted a deer grazing quietly near the stream.
(D) No mistakes.
25. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The long jumpers measured their steps before each attempt.
(B) Coaches shouted encouragement from the edge of the field.
(C) A cool breeze rippled the banners above the crowded stands.
(D) No mistakes.
26. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) We followed the muddy path to a wide, sunny meadow.
(B) Tired from the climb, we stopped to lay down on the soft grass.
(C) Butterflies drifted between the bright wildflowers.
(D) No mistakes.
27. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Rows of tall shelves stretched toward the back wall.
(B) A student returned a heavy stack of overdue books.
(C) The principle of our school opened the new reading room today.
(D) No mistakes.
28. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The runners lined up carefully behind the white starting line.
(B) A loud whistle sent the sprinters flying down the track.
(C) Our anchor leg finished faster then the team from across town.
(D) No mistakes.
29. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The bright red balloon rose slowly above the quiet fairground.
(B) The pilots checked there instruments before the morning launch.
(C) A gentle breeze carried the basket over the sleeping town.
(D) No mistakes.
30. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) I borrowed a novel called the secret garden from the front desk.
(B) The librarian stamped the due date inside the cover.
(C) Soft lamps lit each corner of the quiet reading room.
(D) No mistakes.
31. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The reference section held dozens of thick atlases.
(B) A quiet hum came from the computers near the window.
(C) Volunteers sorted returned books onto a wooden cart.
(D) No mistakes.
32. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Two balloons launched together from the grassy field.
(B) The wind pushed both baskets gently toward the hills.
(C) The striped balloon climbed more higher than ours in the calm air.
(D) No mistakes.
33. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The balloon slowly lost it's bright glow as the burner cooled.
(B) Crowds below waved at the colorful shape drifting overhead.
(C) The pilot pulled a cord to release a puff of hot air.
(D) No mistakes.
34. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) New magazines were fanned out across the low table.
(B) A children's story hour was about to begin in the corner.
(C) The clock above the door ticked softly in the stillness.
(D) No mistakes.
35. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The sprinter whom won the final race grinned at the cheering fans.
(B) Officials recorded each time on a bright orange clipboard.
(C) The four teammates practiced their handoffs one last time.
(D) No mistakes.
36. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) This batter needs fewer sugar than the recipe we tried last week.
(B) My sister flipped each pancake with a quick twist of the wrist.
(C) Warm syrup dripped slowly down the tall stack.
(D) No mistakes.
37. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) We melted a pat of butter across the hot pan.
(B) Everyone at the table wanted seconds accept my youngest cousin.
(C) The kitchen filled with the sweet smell of breakfast.
(D) No mistakes.
38. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The trail ended at a quiet, sparkling pond.
(B) We rested on a flat rock and shared our water.
(C) Tall reeds swayed along the muddy shoreline.
(D) No mistakes.
39. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) After we mixed the batter we poured it onto the sizzling griddle.
(B) A sprinkle of blueberries dotted each round pancake.
(C) Dad carried the full plates carefully to the table.
(D) No mistakes.
40. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Our guide pointed up the hill and said, "The waterfall is just ahead".
(B) Thick ferns brushed our knees as we walked single file.
(C) A woodpecker tapped steadily on a hollow tree.
(D) No mistakes.
Look for mistakes in spelling only.
41. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The librarian arranged the new novels on the middle shelf.
(B) Please return the sharp scisors to the art supply drawer.
(C) Thick fog settled over the harbor early in the morning.
(D) No mistakes.
42. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The astronomer adjusted the telescope to study the distant galaxy.
(B) Marisol sketched the old lighthouse from the edge of the pier.
(C) The committee approved the budget after a long discussion.
(D) No mistakes.
43. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The chef seasoned the soup with a pinch of black pepper.
(B) Two kittens chased a ball of yarn across the wooden floor.
(C) The team posted the practice schedual on the locker room wall.
(D) No mistakes.
44. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The painter mixed blue and yellow to create a bright green.
(B) Our family adopted a friendly puppy from the shelter.
(C) The nurse checked the patient's temperture before the exam.
(D) No mistakes.
45. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The unexpected gift was a wonderful suprise for the whole class.
(B) Farmers harvested the golden wheat before the autumn rains.
(C) The coach reminded the players to stretch before the game.
(D) No mistakes.
46. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) She thanked her mentor sincerly for all of the helpful advice.
(B) The bakery sells warm muffins every Saturday morning.
(C) A cardinal perched on the snowy branch outside the window.
(D) No mistakes.
47. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The engineer measured the bridge before the inspection began.
(B) Grandpa brewed a pot of coffee and read the morning newspaper.
(C) The volunteers gathered supplies for the community cleanup.
(D) No mistakes.
48. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The florist wrapped the roses in soft green paper.
(B) The principal announced that the science fair will be held tommorow.
(C) Waves rolled gently onto the sandy shore at sunset.
(D) No mistakes.
49. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Her dedication and hard work led to great sucess at the competition.
(B) The gardener planted rows of carrots along the sunny fence.
(C) A gentle breeze carried the smell of fresh bread down the street.
(D) No mistakes.
50. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The hikers followed the narrow trail toward the waterfall.
(B) The club's secratary recorded the notes during the meeting.
(C) A row of oak trees lined the quiet country lane.
(D) No mistakes.
Choose the best answer.
51. Which of these sentences expresses the idea most clearly?
(A) Hiking up the steep trail, Aiden noticed a hawk circling overhead.
(B) Hiking up the steep trail, a hawk was noticed by Aiden circling overhead.
(C) Hiking up the steep trail, the sky was where Aiden noticed a hawk circling.
(D) A hawk circling overhead, hiking up the steep trail, was noticed by Aiden.
52. Which choice best combines the sentences? "The alarm rang loudly. Everyone hurried out of the building."
(A) The alarm rang loudly, everyone hurried out of the building.
(B) The alarm rang loudly, but everyone hurried out of the building.
(C) Everyone hurried out of the building, and the alarm ringing loudly.
(D) When the alarm rang loudly, everyone hurried out of the building.
53. Which of these sentences expresses the idea most clearly?
(A) Racing toward the finish line, the trophy was won by Devon in record time.
(B) Racing toward the finish line, Devon won the trophy in record time.
(C) Racing toward the finish line, the record time was how Devon won the trophy.
(D) The trophy in record time, racing toward the finish line, was won by Devon.
54. Which sentence does not belong in this paragraph? (1) Thunderstorms form when warm, moist air rises quickly into the sky. (2) The rising air builds tall, dark clouds full of energy. (3) My favorite board game takes about an hour to finish. (4) Lightning and heavy rain often follow within minutes.
(A) Sentence 1
(B) Sentence 2
(C) Sentence 3
(D) Sentence 4
55. Which sentence does not belong in this paragraph? (1) Penguins are birds that cannot fly but are excellent swimmers. (2) Their smooth feathers and flippers help them glide through cold ocean water. (3) Thick layers of fat keep them warm in freezing weather. (4) The new pizza shop downtown offers ten different toppings.
(A) Sentence 1
(B) Sentence 2
(C) Sentence 3
(D) Sentence 4
56. Choose the word that best joins the thoughts. "Leah studied the map carefully before the trip; _______, she never got lost in the city."
(A) however
(B) for example
(C) as a result
(D) meanwhile
57. Which sentence would make the best topic sentence for a paragraph about the benefits of keeping a daily journal?
(A) I bought a new journal with a bright red cover last weekend.
(B) Keeping a daily journal calms your mind, sharpens your memory, and helps you reach your goals.
(C) Some people prefer to write with a pen rather than a pencil.
(D) My journal has exactly two hundred blank pages inside it.
58. Choose the word that best joins the thoughts. "The trail was muddy and steep; _______, the class reached the summit before noon."
(A) therefore
(B) for instance
(C) in addition
(D) however
59. Which choice best combines the sentences? "The directions were confusing. Marcus assembled the bookshelf correctly."
(A) The directions were confusing, Marcus assembled the bookshelf correctly.
(B) The directions were confusing because Marcus assembled the bookshelf correctly.
(C) Although the directions were confusing, Marcus assembled the bookshelf correctly.
(D) Marcus assembled the bookshelf correctly, and the directions being confusing.
60. Which sentence would make the best topic sentence for a paragraph about the benefits of learning a second language?
(A) Learning a second language broadens your mind, opens new friendships, and improves your job prospects.
(B) My cousin studies Spanish on his phone during the bus ride.
(C) Some languages use an alphabet that is different from English.
(D) The language teacher decorated her classroom with colorful flags.
Answer Key
Step-by-step explanations for every question are available in the online simulator after completing the test.