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Practice Test 2
298 questions · 5 separately timed sections. Time each section strictly, as shown at the start of each section.
Section 1: Verbal Skills
60 questions — Time limit: 16 minutes
Choose the word that means the same or about the same as the underlined word.
1. Jubilant most nearly means
(A) gloomy
(B) anxious
(C) joyful
(D) careless
2. Obsolete most nearly means
(A) outdated
(B) useful
(C) modern
(D) broken
3. Reluctant most nearly means
(A) eager
(B) careless
(C) angry
(D) unwilling
4. Hostile most nearly means
(A) helpful
(B) unfriendly
(C) noisy
(D) strange
5. Feeble most nearly means
(A) firm
(B) weak
(C) clumsy
(D) tiny
6. Abundant most nearly means
(A) rare
(B) expensive
(C) plentiful
(D) delicious
7. Console most nearly means
(A) comfort
(B) scold
(C) ignore
(D) entertain
8. Perilous most nearly means
(A) exciting
(B) distant
(C) difficult
(D) dangerous
9. Flourish most nearly means
(A) wither
(B) wander
(C) thrive
(D) boast
10. Summit most nearly means
(A) base
(B) peak
(C) slope
(D) cliff
11. Weary most nearly means
(A) tired
(B) cautious
(C) bored
(D) upset
12. Commence most nearly means
(A) praise
(B) finish
(C) delay
(D) begin
13. Detest most nearly means
(A) admire
(B) examine
(C) hate
(D) avoid
14. Vacant most nearly means
(A) dirty
(B) empty
(C) quiet
(D) dark
15. Baffle most nearly means
(A) confuse
(B) annoy
(C) delay
(D) frighten
Choose the word that means the opposite of the word in capital letters.
16. GRADUAL means the opposite of
(A) sudden
(B) slow
(C) steady
(D) gentle
17. GENUINE means the opposite of
(A) sincere
(B) fake
(C) valuable
(D) ordinary
18. STURDY means the opposite of
(A) strong
(B) heavy
(C) flimsy
(D) stiff
19. CONCEAL means the opposite of
(A) hide
(B) cover
(C) protect
(D) reveal
20. OBSTINATE means the opposite of
(A) flexible
(B) stubborn
(C) rude
(D) determined
21. ARCHAIC means the opposite of
(A) ancient
(B) modern
(C) historic
(D) broken
22. FRIVOLOUS means the opposite of
(A) silly
(B) playful
(C) serious
(D) cheerful
23. DROWSY means the opposite of
(A) sleepy
(B) tired
(C) calm
(D) alert
24. THRIVE means the opposite of
(A) flourish
(B) grow
(C) succeed
(D) wither
Choose the word that best completes the analogy.
25. Chapter is to book as scene is to
(A) actor
(B) play
(C) stage
(D) author
26. Shovel is to dig as needle is to
(A) pin
(B) cut
(C) thread
(D) sew
27. Cobbler is to shoes as tailor is to
(A) clothing
(B) fabric
(C) thread
(D) scissors
28. Virus is to illness as friction is to
(A) motion
(B) oil
(C) heat
(D) smoothness
29. Warm is to scalding as cool is to
(A) frigid
(B) tepid
(C) mild
(D) damp
30. Mammal is to whale as reptile is to
(A) frog
(B) salmon
(C) penguin
(D) lizard
31. Scarce is to plentiful as ancient is to
(A) historic
(B) modern
(C) rare
(D) famous
32. Rung is to ladder as spoke is to
(A) bicycle
(B) hub
(C) wheel
(D) pedal
33. Judge is to courtroom as chef is to
(A) menu
(B) apron
(C) restaurant
(D) kitchen
34. Calf is to cow as lamb is to
(A) sheep
(B) goat
(C) wool
(D) shepherd
Choose the word that does not belong with the others.
35. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) sleet
(B) drizzle
(C) breeze
(D) hail
36. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) hammer
(B) wrench
(C) pliers
(D) nail
37. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) grief
(B) joy
(C) delight
(D) glee
38. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) sprint
(B) dawdle
(C) dash
(D) dart
39. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) cotton
(B) silk
(C) wool
(D) marble
40. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) honesty
(B) loyalty
(C) envy
(D) courage
41. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) beetle
(B) spider
(C) ant
(D) wasp
42. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) tulip
(B) oak
(C) maple
(D) cedar
43. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) bake
(B) roast
(C) fry
(D) freeze
44. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) minute
(B) hour
(C) mile
(D) week
45. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) hospital
(B) teacher
(C) plumber
(D) dentist
46. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) whisper
(B) gaze
(C) murmur
(D) mutter
47. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) minuscule
(B) enormous
(C) immense
(D) colossal
48. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) lake
(B) pond
(C) lagoon
(D) river
49. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) planet
(B) comet
(C) telescope
(D) asteroid
50. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) gallop
(B) slither
(C) trot
(D) canter
If the first two statements are true, decide whether the third statement is true, false, or uncertain.
51. Maya is taller than Jordan. Jordan is taller than Priya. Maya is taller than Priya. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
52. The red bike costs more than the blue bike. The blue bike costs more than the green bike. The green bike costs more than the red bike. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
53. Some students in the chess club are eighth graders. All eighth graders at Lincoln School take science. All students in the chess club take science. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
54. Carlos ran the race faster than Deshawn. Deshawn ran the race faster than Emma. Emma ran the race slower than Carlos. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
55. Aiden is older than Bella. Chen is younger than Bella. Chen is older than Aiden. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
56. The oak tree is taller than the maple tree. The oak tree is taller than the pine tree. The maple tree is taller than the pine tree. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
57. A dozen eggs costs less at Market A than at Market B. A dozen eggs costs less at Market B than at Market C. A dozen eggs costs less at Market A than at Market C. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
58. Nia read more books this summer than Owen. Owen read more books this summer than Tara. Nia and Tara read the same number of books. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
59. Train A travels faster than Train B. Train C travels faster than Train B. Train A travels faster than Train C. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
60. Mrs. Park's class has the same number of students as Mr. Diaz's class. Mr. Diaz's class has more students than Ms. Lee's class. Mrs. Park's class has more students than Ms. Lee's class. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
Section 2: Quantitative Skills
52 questions — Time limit: 30 minutes
Choose the number that should come next (or that fits the blank) in the series.
1. Look at this series: 4, 11, 18, 25, 32, ... What number should come next?
(A) 38
(B) 39
(C) 40
(D) 46
2. Look at this series: 2, 6, 18, 54, ... What number should come next?
(A) 58
(B) 108
(C) 148
(D) 162
3. Look at this series: 10, 15, 13, 18, 16, 21, ... What number should come next?
(A) 19
(B) 23
(C) 24
(D) 26
4. Look at this series: 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, ... What number should come next?
(A) 42
(B) 47
(C) 49
(D) 64
5. Look at this series: 1, 8, 27, 64, ... What number should come next?
(A) 100
(B) 125
(C) 128
(D) 216
6. Look at this series: 5, 30, 8, 26, 11, 22, ... What number should come next?
(A) 14
(B) 15
(C) 16
(D) 18
7. Look at this series: 96, 48, 24, 12, 6, ... What number should come next?
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
8. Look at this series: 5, 7, 11, 17, 25, ... What number should come next?
(A) 31
(B) 33
(C) 35
(D) 37
9. Look at this series: 1/2, 3/4, 1, 1 1/4, ... What number should come next?
(A) 1 1/2
(B) 1 3/4
(C) 2
(D) 2 1/4
10. Look at this series: 0.3, 0.6, 1.2, 2.4, ... What number should come next?
(A) 3.6
(B) 4.8
(C) 5.2
(D) 7.2
11. Look at this series: 7, 14, ___, 28, 35. What number should fill the blank?
(A) 18
(B) 20
(C) 21
(D) 24
12. Look at this series: 4, 12, 36, ___, 324. What number should fill the blank?
(A) 48
(B) 72
(C) 96
(D) 108
13. Look at this series: 6, 12, 9, 18, 15, 30, ... What number should come next?
(A) 25
(B) 27
(C) 33
(D) 60
14. Look at this series: 50, 49, 47, 44, 40, ... What number should come next?
(A) 35
(B) 36
(C) 38
(D) 39
15. Look at this series: 2, 10, 4, 20, 6, 30, ... What number should come next?
(A) 40
(B) 36
(C) 12
(D) 8
16. Look at this series: 17, 28, 39, 50, ... What number should come next?
(A) 59
(B) 60
(C) 61
(D) 62
17. Look at this series: 3, 7, 11, 9, 13, 17, 15, ... What number should come next?
(A) 19
(B) 13
(C) 18
(D) 20
18. Look at this series: 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, ... What number should come next?
(A) 35
(B) 37
(C) 38
(D) 39
Examine the quantities and choose the best answer.
19. (a) the perimeter of a square with side 6 inches (b) the perimeter of a rectangle 8 inches long and 4 inches wide (c) the perimeter of an equilateral triangle with side 8 inches
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal.
(B) (a) is greater than (b) and (c).
(C) (c) is less than (a) and (b).
(D) (b) is greater than (a) and less than (c).
20. (a) the area of a square with side 5 cm (b) the area of a rectangle 6 cm long and 4 cm wide (c) the area of a triangle with base 10 cm and height 5 cm
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal.
(B) (a) and (c) are equal, and each is greater than (b).
(C) (b) is greater than (a) and (c).
(D) (a) is less than (b) and less than (c).
21. (a) the sum of the interior angle measures of a triangle (b) the number of degrees in a straight angle (c) the sum of the interior angle measures of a quadrilateral
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal.
(B) (c) is less than (a) and (b).
(C) (a) and (b) are equal, and each is less than (c).
(D) (a) is greater than (b) and greater than (c).
22. (a) the number of sides of a hexagon (b) the number of sides of a pentagon (c) the number of sides of an octagon
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal.
(B) (a) is greater than (b) and greater than (c).
(C) (b) is greater than (a) and less than (c).
(D) (a) is greater than (b) and less than (c).
23. (a) the perimeter of a regular pentagon with side 4 inches (b) the perimeter of a square with side 5 inches (c) the perimeter of a regular hexagon with side 3 inches
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal.
(B) (a) and (b) are equal, and each is greater than (c).
(C) (c) is greater than (a) and (b).
(D) (a) is less than (b) and greater than (c).
24. (a) the area of a rectangle 9 feet long and 4 feet wide (b) the area of a square with side 6 feet (c) the area of a triangle with base 12 feet and height 6 feet
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal.
(B) (a) and (b) are equal, and each is less than (c).
(C) (c) is greater than (a) and greater than (b).
(D) (b) is less than (a) and less than (c).
25. (a) the measure of one angle of an equilateral triangle (b) the measure of one angle of a square (c) the measure of a right angle
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal.
(B) (a) is greater than (b) and (c).
(C) (b) is greater than (c).
(D) (b) and (c) are equal, and each is greater than (a).
26. (a) the perimeter of a rectangle 10 cm long and 3 cm wide (b) the perimeter of a square with side 7 cm (c) the perimeter of an equilateral triangle with side 9 cm
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal.
(B) (a) is greater than (b) and greater than (c).
(C) (a) is less than (c), and (c) is less than (b).
(D) (b) is less than (a) and less than (c).
27. (a) the area of a square with side 4 inches (b) half the area of a square with side 6 inches (c) the area of a triangle with base 8 inches and height 4 inches
(A) (a) and (c) are equal, and each is less than (b).
(B) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal.
(C) (a) and (b) are equal, and each is greater than (c).
(D) (b) is less than (a) and less than (c).
28. (a) 25% of 60 (b) 1/2 of 30 (c) 0.3 × 50
(A) (a) is greater than (b) and (c).
(B) (b) and (c) are equal, and each is less than (a).
(C) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal.
(D) (c) is greater than (a) and (b).
29. (a) 2 to the third power (b) 3 to the second power (c) 2 × 2 × 2
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal.
(B) (a) is greater than (b) and (c).
(C) (a) and (b) are equal, and each is greater than (c).
(D) (a) and (c) are equal, and each is less than (b).
30. (a) 1/2 + 1/4 (b) 3/4 (c) 0.8
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal.
(B) (a) and (b) are equal, and each is less than (c).
(C) (c) is less than (a) and less than (b).
(D) (a) is greater than (b) and greater than (c).
31. (a) 10% of 200 (b) 20% of 50 (c) 50% of 40
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal.
(B) (b) is greater than (a) and (c).
(C) (a) is less than (b) and less than (c).
(D) (a) and (c) are equal, and each is greater than (b).
32. (a) 4 × 6 (b) 5 to the second power (c) 30 − 7
(A) (a) is greater than (c) and less than (b).
(B) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal.
(C) (b) is less than (a) and less than (c).
(D) (c) is greater than (a) and (b).
33. (a) the average of 10, 20, and 30 (b) 1/2 of 44 (c) 5 × 4
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal.
(B) (a) is greater than (b) and greater than (c).
(C) (a) and (c) are equal, and each is less than (b).
(D) (b) is less than (c).
34. (a) 6 × 7 (b) 90 − 50 (c) 2 × 22
(A) (a) is less than (b) and less than (c).
(B) (a) is greater than (b) and less than (c).
(C) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal.
(D) (b) is greater than (c).
35. (a) 15% of 200 (b) 3 × 9 (c) 100 ÷ 4
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal.
(B) (a) is less than (b), and (b) is less than (c).
(C) (b) is greater than (a) and greater than (c).
(D) (a) is greater than (b), and (b) is greater than (c).
Work each problem and choose the best answer.
36. What number is 6 more than 2/3 of 36?
(A) 30
(B) 18
(C) 24
(D) 42
37. 1/4 of what number is 5 less than 17?
(A) 12
(B) 48
(C) 88
(D) 3
38. What number is 40% of half of 90?
(A) 36
(B) 45
(C) 18
(D) 20
39. What number squared, plus 7, equals 56?
(A) 49
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 7
40. What number is 12 more than 25% of 64?
(A) 16
(B) 28
(C) 4
(D) 76
41. 3/4 of what number is 27?
(A) 36
(B) 24
(C) 20
(D) 48
42. What number is 5 less than the product of 6 and 9?
(A) 59
(B) 45
(C) 49
(D) 50
43. What number divided by 4 equals 3 more than 8?
(A) 32
(B) 20
(C) 40
(D) 44
44. What number is 2/5 of the sum of 18 and 22?
(A) 16
(B) 8
(C) 20
(D) 25
45. What number, when cubed, equals 64?
(A) 8
(B) 16
(C) 4
(D) 3
46. 60% of what number is 45?
(A) 27
(B) 75
(C) 90
(D) 72
47. What number is 15 less than twice 24?
(A) 63
(B) 9
(C) 39
(D) 33
48. What number is the average of 14, 20, and 29?
(A) 20
(B) 63
(C) 21
(D) 24
49. 1/3 of what number is 4 more than 14?
(A) 54
(B) 6
(C) 42
(D) 30
50. What number is 30% of 90, decreased by 7?
(A) 27
(B) 34
(C) 63
(D) 20
51. What number, when doubled and then increased by 9, equals 41?
(A) 25
(B) 16
(C) 32
(D) 13
52. What number is 3/8 of 96?
(A) 12
(B) 48
(C) 32
(D) 36
Section 3: Reading
62 questions — Time limit: 25 minutes
Read the passage, then choose the best answer to each question.
1. Which statement best expresses the main idea of the passage?
(A) A community bike shop on Delancey Street offers free repairs to neighborhood children.
(B) By learning to repair bikes personally, the narrator discovers that patience and small, careful steps solve most problems.
(C) Mr. Okafor believes that children should walk to school instead of riding bikes.
(D) Fixing a wobbly wheel is the most difficult task a young mechanic can attempt.
2. Why did the narrator decide to stay at the shop on the first afternoon?
(A) Mr. Okafor promised to fix the bike quickly.
(B) The narrator had always wanted to learn bike repair.
(C) Two other kids invited the narrator to join them.
(D) The only other choice was walking to school for a month.
3. According to the passage, what happened when the narrator turned a spoke too far?
(A) The wobble in the wheel became worse.
(B) The spoke snapped in half.
(C) Mr. Okafor took over the repair.
(D) The wheel fell off the truing stand.
4. By November, the narrator could do all of the following EXCEPT
(A) patch a tube in ten minutes
(B) adjust brakes
(C) build a wheel from spare parts
(D) oil a chain
5. It can be inferred that the shop's rule that "nobody fixes your bike for you" is meant to
(A) save the volunteers time and effort
(B) help visitors become confident, self-reliant problem solvers
(C) discourage younger children from visiting the shop
(D) make sure customers pay for every repair
6. As used in the passage, the word humbling most nearly means
(A) making someone feel modest about their abilities
(B) extremely entertaining
(C) physically exhausting
(D) highly encouraging
7. The narrator's attitude toward Mr. Okafor by the end of the passage is best described as
(A) fearful
(B) resentful
(C) indifferent
(D) grateful and admiring
8. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
(A) How to True a Bicycle Wheel
(B) The History of Community Bike Shops
(C) A Quarter Turn at a Time
(D) Why Walking to School Is Good Exercise
9. This passage is mainly about
(A) how particles from the Sun interact with Earth's magnetic field and atmosphere to create auroras
(B) the best countries in which to photograph the night sky
(C) how Earth's magnetic field is generated deep in the planet's core
(D) the dangers that solar storms pose to satellites and power grids
10. According to the passage, the solar wind is
(A) a ring-shaped zone around the magnetic poles
(B) a burst of light released by energized atoms
(C) a stream of charged particles flowing from the Sun
(D) a shield generated deep in Earth's core
11. The passage states that the green light often seen in auroras is produced by
(A) nitrogen at low altitudes
(B) protons striking the magnetic field
(C) sunlight reflecting off ice near the poles
(D) oxygen
12. Why do auroras appear most often near the North and South Poles?
(A) The air near the poles is colder and clearer.
(B) The magnetic field lines dip toward the surface there, funneling particles into the atmosphere.
(C) The Sun shines more directly on the poles.
(D) The atmosphere is thicker above the poles.
13. As used in the passage, the word deflects most nearly means
(A) turns aside
(B) absorbs
(C) strengthens
(D) attracts
14. Based on the passage, a person living far from the poles would have the best chance of seeing an aurora
(A) during a year when the Sun is unusually quiet
(B) on any clear summer evening
(C) exactly once every eleven years
(D) during a peak in solar activity
15. The author's main purpose in writing this passage is to
(A) persuade readers to travel to Alaska or Norway
(B) describe a personal experience of watching the northern lights
(C) explain the scientific cause of a natural light display
(D) warn readers about the dangers of the solar wind
16. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
(A) The Eleven-Year Cycle of the Sun
(B) Curtains of Light: How Auroras Are Made
(C) Winter Nights in the Arctic Circle
(D) Earth's Core: The Planet's Hidden Engine
17. Which statement best expresses the main idea of the passage?
(A) Elisha Otis invented the first machine capable of lifting heavy loads.
(B) The Crystal Palace exhibition of 1854 was the most popular event of its era.
(C) Otis's safety brake made elevators trustworthy and helped make tall buildings practical.
(D) Ropes used in early hoisting platforms were made from poor-quality materials.
18. According to the passage, Otis's key contribution was
(A) a brake that stopped a platform if its rope broke
(B) the first rope-and-pulley hoisting platform
(C) the design of the New York Crystal Palace
(D) a stronger type of hoisting rope that could not fray
19. What happened at the 1854 demonstration when the rope was cut?
(A) The platform crashed to the floor, but no one was injured.
(B) The platform dropped a few inches and then locked in place.
(C) The spring launched the barrels off the platform.
(D) Otis leaped to safety just before the platform fell.
20. According to the passage, the first passenger safety elevator was installed
(A) at a bedstead factory in Yonkers in 1852
(B) in the Crystal Palace in 1854
(C) in a skyscraper shortly after Otis's death
(D) in a five-story store on Broadway in 1857
21. As used in the passage, the word taut most nearly means
(A) frayed
(B) loose
(C) stretched tight
(D) invisible
22. It can be inferred from the passage that before the safety elevator, the top floors of buildings were the cheapest because
(A) they were more likely to catch fire
(B) reaching them required climbing many flights of stairs
(C) their views were blocked by taller buildings
(D) city laws limited who could live there
23. The author wrote this passage mainly to
(A) persuade readers that modern elevators are still unsafe
(B) compare Otis's brake with today's elevator technology
(C) entertain readers with a fictional adventure story
(D) inform readers about an invention and how it changed cities
24. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
(A) "All Safe": The Invention That Raised the Skyline
(B) Famous Factories of Yonkers, New York
(C) How to Build a Wagon Spring
(D) The Life Story of Every Great Inventor
Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
25. Which statement best expresses the main idea of the passage?
(A) Eleanor Roosevelt was the most important supporter of American music.
(B) Marian Anderson overcame unfair barriers to become one of America's most celebrated singers.
(C) The Lincoln Memorial is the best place in Washington, D.C., for outdoor concerts.
(D) European concert halls were more famous than American ones in the 1930s.
26. According to the passage, why did Marian Anderson perform at the Lincoln Memorial in 1939?
(A) Constitution Hall was closed for repairs.
(B) She preferred singing outdoors to large crowds.
(C) The Metropolitan Opera invited her to sing there.
(D) She had been refused permission to perform at Constitution Hall because she was Black.
27. How did Anderson receive her early musical training?
(A) Members of her church collected donations to pay for lessons.
(B) She won a scholarship from the New York Philharmonic.
(C) Her parents hired a famous European conductor to teach her.
(D) Eleanor Roosevelt paid for her lessons.
28. According to the passage, what milestone did Anderson reach in 1955?
(A) She won a competition against about three hundred other singers.
(B) She received the Presidential Medal of Freedom.
(C) She became the first African American soloist to perform with the Metropolitan Opera.
(D) She gave her first concert tour of Europe.
29. It can be inferred from the passage that Eleanor Roosevelt resigned from the Daughters of the American Revolution because she
(A) wanted more time to organize concerts of her own.
(B) no longer enjoyed the organization's meetings.
(C) disagreed with the group's unfair treatment of Anderson.
(D) was asked to leave by the group's leaders.
30. As used in the passage, the word acclaim most nearly means
(A) criticism
(B) praise
(C) wealth
(D) curiosity
31. The author's tone in this passage can best be described as
(A) critical
(B) humorous
(C) doubtful
(D) admiring
32. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
(A) A Voice That Opened Doors
(B) The History of the Metropolitan Opera
(C) Famous Churches of Philadelphia
(D) How to Train Your Singing Voice
33. Which statement best expresses the main idea of the passage?
(A) Fighting fires is the most dangerous job in the United States.
(B) Small towns should replace their volunteers with paid firefighters.
(C) Volunteer firefighters provide vital services to their communities despite limited money and time.
(D) Pancake breakfasts are the most popular events in small towns.
34. According to the passage, about how many of the nation's firefighters are volunteers?
(A) two-thirds
(B) one-third
(C) nearly all
(D) fewer than one in ten
35. According to the passage, which of the following is one way volunteer departments raise money?
(A) selling their fire trucks to nearby cities
(B) holding fundraisers such as pancake breakfasts and raffles
(C) charging homeowners a fee for every emergency call
(D) collecting taxes from other states
36. The passage states that before responding to any emergency, volunteers must
(A) quit their regular jobs.
(B) buy their own fire trucks.
(C) serve in a junior program for several years.
(D) complete many hours of training.
37. Based on the passage, why do most small towns rely on volunteers instead of paid firefighters?
(A) A full-time paid department would cost more than a small town can afford.
(B) Volunteers are better trained than professional firefighters.
(C) Small towns almost never have emergencies.
(D) Laws prevent small towns from hiring professionals.
38. As used in the passage, the word summoned most nearly means
(A) paid
(B) trained
(C) praised
(D) called
39. The author's main purpose in writing this passage is to
(A) persuade readers to donate money to one particular fire department.
(B) inform readers about how volunteer fire departments serve their communities.
(C) entertain readers with the exciting story of a single dramatic rescue.
(D) warn readers about the most common causes of house fires.
40. Which detail from the passage best supports the idea that volunteers handle many kinds of emergencies, not just fires?
(A) They carry pagers or receive phone alerts wherever they go.
(B) Their firehouses host holiday celebrations and town meetings.
(C) They respond to car crashes, medical emergencies, downed power lines, and flooded basements.
(D) Some departments teach teenagers basic skills in junior programs.
Choose the word that means the same or about the same as the underlined word.
41. an obsolete custom
(A) sacred
(B) outdated
(C) cheerful
(D) common
42. a vivid description
(A) lengthy
(B) false
(C) dull
(D) lifelike
43. a jubilant crowd
(A) joyful
(B) angry
(C) silent
(D) enormous
44. a treacherous mountain path
(A) narrow
(B) muddy
(C) dangerous
(D) safe
45. a somber expression
(A) playful
(B) gloomy
(C) curious
(D) angry
46. an abundant harvest
(A) late
(B) ruined
(C) small
(D) plentiful
47. a hostile glare
(A) unfriendly
(B) brief
(C) puzzled
(D) warm
48. a fragile glass ornament
(A) shiny
(B) expensive
(C) delicate
(D) sturdy
49. a monotonous chore
(A) difficult
(B) tedious
(C) quick
(D) pleasant
50. a spacious hallway
(A) dark
(B) crowded
(C) narrow
(D) roomy
51. a courteous reply
(A) rude
(B) prompt
(C) polite
(D) written
52. an intricate design
(A) complicated
(B) simple
(C) colorful
(D) modern
53. a drowsy afternoon mood
(A) busy
(B) sleepy
(C) chilly
(D) lively
54. a shrewd bargainer
(A) dishonest
(B) foolish
(C) clever
(D) loud
55. a bleak weather forecast
(A) hopeful
(B) distant
(C) confusing
(D) dreary
56. a robust appetite
(A) weak
(B) hearty
(C) picky
(D) unusual
57. an obstinate young child
(A) stubborn
(B) obedient
(C) cheerful
(D) clumsy
58. a great commotion outside
(A) celebration
(B) silence
(C) disturbance
(D) distance
59. a nimble dancer
(A) clumsy
(B) tired
(C) famous
(D) agile
60. a placid mountain lake
(A) deep
(B) calm
(C) stormy
(D) frozen
61. a strange predicament
(A) invention
(B) coincidence
(C) difficulty
(D) celebration
62. a haughty attitude
(A) arrogant
(B) modest
(C) cheerful
(D) careless
Section 4: Mathematics
64 questions — Time limit: 45 minutes
Choose the best answer.
1. In the number 47,382, the digit 7 is in which place?
(A) hundreds
(B) thousands
(C) ten thousands
(D) tens
2. In the decimal 3.586, the digit 6 is in which place?
(A) tenths
(B) hundredths
(C) ones
(D) thousandths
3. What is 6,438 rounded to the nearest hundred?
(A) 6,400
(B) 6,440
(C) 6,500
(D) 6,000
4. Which is the best estimate of 49 × 21?
(A) 100
(B) 500
(C) 1,000
(D) 10,000
5. Which of the following numbers is prime?
(A) 51
(B) 57
(C) 61
(D) 63
6. Which of the following numbers is composite?
(A) 9
(B) 13
(C) 17
(D) 2
7. What is the greatest common factor (GCF) of 24 and 36?
(A) 6
(B) 72
(C) 4
(D) 12
8. What is the least common multiple (LCM) of 6 and 8?
(A) 48
(B) 24
(C) 2
(D) 14
9. Which of the following numbers is divisible by 9?
(A) 316
(B) 234
(C) 452
(D) 124
10. The expression 3⁴ means the same as which of the following?
(A) 3 × 4
(B) 4 × 4 × 4
(C) 3 × 3 × 3 × 3
(D) 3 + 3 + 3 + 3
11. Which of the following is a perfect square?
(A) 49
(B) 48
(C) 50
(D) 54
12. According to the order of operations, which step should be done first to find the value of 8 + 2 × 5?
(A) the addition, because it appears first in the expression
(B) either operation, because the result is the same
(C) the addition, because sums are always done before products
(D) the multiplication
13. Which percent is equal to the fraction 3/5?
(A) 60%
(B) 35%
(C) 53%
(D) 65%
14. The decimal 0.07 is equal to which fraction?
(A) 7/10
(B) 7/100
(C) 7/1000
(D) 1/7
15. Which number lies between 1/2 and 3/4 on a number line?
(A) 2/5
(B) 1/4
(C) 2/3
(D) 4/5
16. Which of the following integers has the least value?
(A) 2
(B) 0
(C) -3
(D) -8
17. An angle that measures 115° is called
(A) an acute angle
(B) a right angle
(C) a straight angle
(D) an obtuse angle
18. A polygon with exactly six sides is called a
(A) hexagon
(B) pentagon
(C) octagon
(D) heptagon
19. A line segment that connects the center of a circle to any point on the circle is called a
(A) diameter
(B) radius
(C) chord
(D) circumference
20. What is the sum of the measures of the interior angles of any triangle?
(A) 90°
(B) 120°
(C) 180°
(D) 360°
21. Which metric unit is most appropriate for measuring the mass of an apple?
(A) grams
(B) kilometers
(C) liters
(D) meters
22. The mode of a set of data is
(A) the middle value when the data are in order
(B) the sum of the values divided by the number of values
(C) the difference between the greatest and least values
(D) the value that appears most often
23. To find the median of a set of data, you should
(A) add all the values and divide by how many there are
(B) arrange the values in order and find the middle value
(C) subtract the least value from the greatest value
(D) count how many values appear in the set
24. If the probability of an event is 1, the event is
(A) impossible
(B) unlikely
(C) certain
(D) equally likely to happen or not happen
Solve each problem and choose the best answer.
25. Jamal ran 2 3/4 miles on Monday and 1 5/8 miles on Tuesday. How many miles did he run in all?
(A) 3 3/8
(B) 4 3/8
(C) 4 1/8
(D) 4 5/8
26. A ribbon 7.2 meters long is cut into pieces that are each 0.45 meter long. How many pieces can be cut?
(A) 1.6
(B) 15
(C) 160
(D) 16
27. Priya has 3/4 pound of trail mix and divides it equally among 6 hikers. How much trail mix does each hiker get?
(A) 1/8 pound
(B) 1/6 pound
(C) 1/2 pound
(D) 4 1/2 pounds
28. Dario buys 3.5 pounds of apples that cost $1.24 per pound. How much does he pay in all?
(A) $3.44
(B) $4.24
(C) $4.34
(D) $4.44
29. A jacket that regularly costs $80 is on sale for 35% off. What is the sale price?
(A) $28
(B) $52
(C) $45
(D) $56
30. Lena buys a book that costs $24.00. If the sales tax is 6%, what is the total amount she pays?
(A) $25.44
(B) $25.20
(C) $24.06
(D) $26.40
31. The Nguyen family's dinner bill is $45.00, and they want to leave a 20% tip. How much should the tip be?
(A) $4.50
(B) $6.75
(C) $11.25
(D) $9.00
32. Kofi answered 18 questions correctly on a quiz, which was exactly 30% of all the questions. How many questions were on the quiz?
(A) 48
(B) 54
(C) 60
(D) 90
33. In the chess club, the ratio of boys to girls is 3 to 5. If there are 15 girls in the club, how many boys are there?
(A) 9
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 25
34. On a map, 2 inches represent 25 miles. Two towns are 7 inches apart on the map. What is the actual distance between the towns?
(A) 70 miles
(B) 75 miles
(C) 87.5 miles
(D) 100 miles
35. A machine fills 84 bottles in 6 minutes. At this rate, how many bottles will it fill in 15 minutes?
(A) 196
(B) 210
(C) 168
(D) 224
36. Solve for x: 3x − 7 = 20
(A) 4 1/3
(B) 7
(C) 13
(D) 9
37. Five more than twice a number is 41. What is the number?
(A) 18
(B) 23
(C) 36
(D) 16
38. Ana is 4 years older than twice her brother's age. If Ana is 16 years old, how old is her brother?
(A) 8
(B) 6
(C) 10
(D) 24
39. Solve for x: x/4 + 3 = 10
(A) 7
(B) 40
(C) 52
(D) 28
40. Marisol's scores on five science tests were 78, 85, 92, 88, and 82. What was her mean (average) score?
(A) 84
(B) 88
(C) 85
(D) 86
41. Tyrell recorded the number of goals his team scored in five games: 4, 9, 3, 9, and 5. What is the median number of goals?
(A) 5
(B) 9
(C) 6
(D) 3
42. A hiking trail is 2.5 miles long. How many feet is that? (1 mile = 5,280 feet)
(A) 10,560 feet
(B) 12,500 feet
(C) 13,500 feet
(D) 13,200 feet
43. A watermelon has a mass of 3.4 kilograms. What is its mass in grams?
(A) 340 grams
(B) 3,400 grams
(C) 34,000 grams
(D) 0.0034 gram
44. Rosa deposits $600 in a savings account that earns 4% simple interest per year. How much interest will she earn in 3 years?
(A) $24
(B) $48
(C) $72
(D) $672
45. A rectangular garden is 14 feet long and 9 feet wide. How many feet of fencing are needed to enclose the entire garden?
(A) 23 feet
(B) 46 feet
(C) 126 feet
(D) 56 feet
46. A triangular sail has a base of 12 centimeters and a height of 7 centimeters. What is the area of the sail?
(A) 84 square centimeters
(B) 19 square centimeters
(C) 42 square centimeters
(D) 38 square centimeters
47. A rectangular room floor is 12 feet long and 10 feet wide. A square rug that is 6 feet on each side is placed on the floor. How many square feet of the floor are NOT covered by the rug?
(A) 84 square feet
(B) 96 square feet
(C) 114 square feet
(D) 78 square feet
48. A rectangular sheet of paper is 8 inches long and 5 inches wide. A square piece measuring 2 inches on each side is cut off from one corner. What is the area of the remaining paper?
(A) 38 square inches
(B) 44 square inches
(C) 32 square inches
(D) 36 square inches
49. A storage box is 8 inches long, 5 inches wide, and 4 inches tall. What is the volume of the box?
(A) 17 cubic inches
(B) 80 cubic inches
(C) 160 cubic inches
(D) 320 cubic inches
50. An aquarium is 60 centimeters long and 30 centimeters wide. It is filled with water to a depth of 20 centimeters. How many cubic centimeters of water are in the aquarium?
(A) 3,600 cubic centimeters
(B) 36,000 cubic centimeters
(C) 1,800 cubic centimeters
(D) 110 cubic centimeters
51. Two angles are complementary. If one angle measures 34 degrees, what is the measure of the other angle?
(A) 56 degrees
(B) 146 degrees
(C) 66 degrees
(D) 46 degrees
52. An angle measures twice as many degrees as its supplement. What is the measure of the angle?
(A) 60 degrees
(B) 90 degrees
(C) 135 degrees
(D) 120 degrees
53. In a triangle, two of the angles measure 48 degrees and 71 degrees. What is the measure of the third angle?
(A) 51 degrees
(B) 61 degrees
(C) 119 degrees
(D) 71 degrees
54. The Ramirez family drove 195 miles in 3 hours at a steady speed. What was their average speed in miles per hour?
(A) 60 miles per hour
(B) 70 miles per hour
(C) 65 miles per hour
(D) 75 miles per hour
55. Keisha rides her bicycle at a steady speed of 12 miles per hour. How long will it take her to ride 30 miles?
(A) 2 and 1/2 hours
(B) 2 hours
(C) 3 hours
(D) 3 and 1/2 hours
56. A train travels at a constant speed of 80 miles per hour. How far does it travel in 2 hours and 15 minutes?
(A) 160 miles
(B) 170 miles
(C) 172 miles
(D) 180 miles
57. A bag contains 4 red marbles, 5 blue marbles, and 3 green marbles. If one marble is drawn at random, what is the probability that it is blue?
(A) 5/12
(B) 1/3
(C) 5/7
(D) 1/2
58. A box holds 12 pens, and exactly 3 of them are out of ink. If Devon picks one pen at random, what is the probability that the pen works?
(A) 1/4
(B) 3/4
(C) 2/3
(D) 1/3
59. At dawn the temperature was 8 degrees below zero. By noon it had risen 15 degrees, and by evening it had fallen 6 degrees from its noon reading. What was the temperature in the evening?
(A) −1 degree
(B) 13 degrees
(C) 1 degree
(D) −13 degrees
60. A scientist starts with 5 bacteria in a dish. The number of bacteria doubles every hour. How many bacteria will there be after 4 hours?
(A) 40
(B) 20
(C) 625
(D) 80
61. A diver is 35 feet below the surface of the ocean. She descends another 12 feet, then rises 20 feet. What is her position now?
(A) 27 feet below the surface
(B) 67 feet below the surface
(C) 3 feet below the surface
(D) 27 feet above the surface
62. Jordan buys 3 notebooks that cost $2.75 each and 2 pens that cost $1.20 each. If he pays with a $20 bill, how much change should he receive?
(A) $10.65
(B) $9.35
(C) $9.45
(D) $8.35
63. Movie tickets cost $9.50 for each adult and $6.00 for each child. The Chen family buys 2 adult tickets and 3 child tickets, and they use a coupon for $5.00 off the total. How much do they pay?
(A) $37.00
(B) $30.50
(C) $32.00
(D) $42.00
64. Lena earns $12.00 per hour at her job. She worked 6 hours on Saturday and 4.5 hours on Sunday. After she spends $58.00 on a pair of shoes, how much of her weekend earnings does she have left?
(A) $126.00
(B) $72.00
(C) $58.00
(D) $68.00
Section 5: Language
60 questions — Time limit: 25 minutes
Look for errors in punctuation, capitalization, or usage. If there is no error, choose (D).
1. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The box of crayons were left on the windowsill.
(B) Marisol practiced the piano for an hour after dinner.
(C) We drove through three states on our trip to Ohio.
(D) No mistakes.
2. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The committee will announce its decision on Friday.
(B) The dog wagged it's tail when Jerome walked in.
(C) Autumn leaves drifted across the empty playground.
(D) No mistakes.
3. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Devon finished his homework before the game started.
(B) The recipe calls for two cups of flour and one egg.
(C) Our teacher explained the assignment twice.
(D) No mistakes.
4. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) My cousin plays soccer every Saturday morning.
(B) The library closes early during the summer.
(C) We visited aunt Carla at her farm in June.
(D) No mistakes.
5. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Keisha and I walked to the market together.
(B) The coach gave the trophy to Marcus and I.
(C) The train arrived exactly on time this morning.
(D) No mistakes.
6. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The storm knocked out the power, we lit candles instead.
(B) Before the concert, the musicians tuned their instruments.
(C) Hannah's essay won first prize in the contest.
(D) No mistakes.
7. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The students collected canned goods for the food drive.
(B) After the movie, we discussed our favorite scenes.
(C) Grandpa tells the funniest stories at dinner.
(D) No mistakes.
8. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Last night the wind howled through the trees.
(B) The bakery on Main Street sells fresh bread daily.
(C) Yesterday Liam brings his lizard to school for show-and-tell.
(D) No mistakes.
9. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The hikers reached the summit just before noon.
(B) Please put the dishes away after you dry them.
(C) The twins left there backpacks on the bus again.
(D) No mistakes.
10. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Every runner received a medal at the finish line.
(B) She don't like walking home in the rain.
(C) The museum's new exhibit opens next weekend.
(D) No mistakes.
11. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) My family goes camping every Summer in Colorado.
(B) The mayor spoke at the ribbon-cutting ceremony.
(C) Ivan sketched the old bridge in his notebook.
(D) No mistakes.
12. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The orchestra rehearsed the symphony for weeks.
(B) Did you remember to lock the back door?
(C) Nadia planted tomatoes and peppers in her garden.
(D) No mistakes.
13. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The kitten chased the yarn across the kitchen floor.
(B) Mr. Alvarez coaches the debate team on Tuesdays.
(C) Where did you put the car keys.
(D) No mistakes.
14. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The scientists recorded the temperature every hour.
(B) Omar saved his allowance to buy a telescope.
(C) The bright kite dipped and soared above the beach.
(D) No mistakes.
15. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Of the two puppies, Rex is the friendliest.
(B) The ferry crosses the harbor every thirty minutes.
(C) Tanya folded the laundry while she listened to music.
(D) No mistakes.
16. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The chorus sang two songs at the assembly.
(B) We didn't have no time to finish the puzzle.
(C) A gentle breeze rustled the curtains.
(D) No mistakes.
17. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Don't forget you're umbrella when you leave.
(B) The janitor swept the hallway before the bell rang.
(C) Priya memorized her lines for the school play.
(D) No mistakes.
18. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The waves crashed loudly against the rocks.
(B) Mrs. Chen assigned a chapter of reading for homework.
(C) Him and Diego built a birdhouse for the science fair.
(D) No mistakes.
19. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The pilot announced our arrival time over the speaker.
(B) Jamal wrapped the gift in shiny blue paper.
(C) The soup simmered on the stove all afternoon.
(D) No mistakes.
20. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The parade marched down Elm Street at noon.
(B) Three dog's barked at the mail carrier this morning.
(C) Elena whistled a cheerful tune on her way home.
(D) No mistakes.
21. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) We packed sandwiches apples, and juice for the picnic.
(B) Marcus finished his homework before dinner.
(C) The library closes at nine on weeknights.
(D) No mistakes.
22. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) After the storm passed, we swept the porch.
(B) The recipe calls for two cups of flour.
(C) The train arrives at noon on Saturdays.
(D) No mistakes.
23. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Elena's backpack was left on the bus.
(B) The dogs bowl was empty by noon.
(C) We visited my aunt's farm last summer.
(D) No mistakes.
24. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) They're planning to arrive before sunset.
(B) The twins rode their bikes to practice.
(C) The students left there books in the gym.
(D) No mistakes.
25. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) My cousins visit every Thanksgiving.
(B) The parade downtown is held on memorial day.
(C) School closes for a week in December.
(D) No mistakes.
26. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Whitney plays the violin very well.
(B) My grandmother, who lives in Ohio, calls every Sunday.
(C) The recipe calls for two cups of flour.
(D) No mistakes.
27. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) "Hand me the wrench" said Miguel.
(B) Nadia asked, "When does the movie start?"
(C) "We won the game," shouted Tobias.
(D) No mistakes.
28. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Fewer cars were on the road this morning.
(B) We have less time than we thought.
(C) There were less students in class today.
(D) No mistakes.
29. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) We couldn't find nothing to eat in the pantry.
(B) Darius has never been to the ocean.
(C) Nobody wanted to leave the party early.
(D) No mistakes.
30. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) This is the funniest movie I have ever seen.
(B) Today is colder than yesterday.
(C) Of the two brothers, Alan is the tallest.
(D) No mistakes.
31. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Jerome mowed the lawn, and his sister raked the leaves.
(B) Have you ever hiked in the Rocky Mountains?
(C) The children's coats hung by the door.
(D) No mistakes.
32. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) During the long drive, we played word games.
(B) Before the concert began we found our seats.
(C) The museum stays open late on Thursday evenings.
(D) No mistakes.
33. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The rainy weather did not effect our plans.
(B) The new rule had a positive effect on the team.
(C) Loud noises can affect a baby's sleep.
(D) No mistakes.
34. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Yosemite National Park is in California.
(B) My pen pal lives in a small town in Georgia.
(C) We drove across the mississippi river on our trip.
(D) No mistakes.
35. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The soup smells good.
(B) Priya did good on her spelling test.
(C) Marcus plays chess well for a beginner.
(D) No mistakes.
36. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Mr. Chen, our science teacher gave us extra credit.
(B) My sister, who is twelve, joined the swim team.
(C) The bus driver waved as we crossed the street.
(D) No mistakes.
37. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) "Please close the window," said Mrs. Alvarez.
(B) Its wings were too wet for the moth to fly.
(C) We bought lettuce, tomatoes, and cheese for the salad.
(D) No mistakes.
38. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) It's going to rain later this afternoon.
(B) The bird built its nest in the oak tree.
(C) The team celebrated it's first victory of the season.
(D) No mistakes.
39. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Principal Ortega spoke at the assembly.
(B) Yesterday we met mayor Thompson at the library.
(C) My aunt introduced me to her dentist.
(D) No mistakes.
40. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Although the trail was steep, we reached the summit by noon.
(B) There are fewer tickets left than we expected.
(C) Jamal's grandparents live near Lake Erie.
(D) No mistakes.
Look for mistakes in spelling only.
41. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Please mark the meeting on your calender for next Tuesday.
(B) The librarian arranged the new books on the top shelf.
(C) Our neighbors invited us to a barbecue this weekend.
(D) No mistakes.
42. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The scientist measured the temperature of the water twice.
(B) A truly kind person helps others without expecting a reward.
(C) Forgetting my line in the play did not embarass me as much as I feared.
(D) No mistakes.
43. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The whole family gathered in the kitchen on Wednesday evening.
(B) Marcus was grateful for the surprise party his friends planned.
(C) We usually walk to the library after school on Fridays.
(D) No mistakes.
44. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The jewelry in the display case sparkled under the lights.
(B) The drummer kept a steady rythm during the entire song.
(C) Aunt Rosa's cooking always fills the house with a wonderful smell.
(D) No mistakes.
45. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The new restaraunt on Main Street serves delicious noodle soup.
(B) Dad checked the height of the doorway before moving the couch.
(C) An argument between the twins ended quickly when Mom arrived.
(D) No mistakes.
46. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The whole neighborhood came out to watch the parade.
(B) Every athelete on the track team must attend practice on Saturday.
(C) My little brother finally learned to tie his shoes by himself.
(D) No mistakes.
47. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Success in school requires patience and steady effort.
(B) The foreign exchange student taught us a few words in Japanese.
(C) It is a beautiful day for a picnic in the park.
(D) No mistakes.
48. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The vacuum cleaner stopped working in the middle of the living room.
(B) Grandpa tells wonderful stories about growing up in a small village.
(C) Our class studied how the goverment passes new laws.
(D) No mistakes.
49. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Did you recieve the invitation to Priya's birthday party?
(B) The weird noise in the attic turned out to be a loose shutter.
(C) Tomorrow we will begin rehearsals for the spring musical.
(D) No mistakes.
50. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The cemetery gate creaks whenever the wind blows.
(B) Elena will definately join the chess club this fall.
(C) A noticeable improvement in his grades made Andre proud.
(D) No mistakes.
Choose the best answer.
51. Which choice best combines the sentences? "Maria practiced the violin every day. She hoped to earn a seat in the youth orchestra."
(A) Maria practiced the violin every day, she hoped to earn a seat in the youth orchestra.
(B) Maria practiced the violin every day, but she hoped to earn a seat in the youth orchestra.
(C) Hoping to earn a seat in the youth orchestra, Maria practiced the violin every day.
(D) Maria practiced the violin every day and earning a seat in the youth orchestra was what her hope was.
52. Choose the word that best joins the thoughts. "Devon studied hard for the science test; _______, he earned the highest grade in the class."
(A) however
(B) otherwise
(C) instead
(D) consequently
53. Which sentence would make the best topic sentence for a paragraph about the benefits of school gardens?
(A) School gardens give students hands-on lessons in science, nutrition, and responsibility.
(B) Tomato plants need at least six hours of sunlight each day.
(C) Some schools are located in the middle of large cities.
(D) Garden tools can be expensive to replace when they break.
54. Which sentence does not belong in this paragraph? (1) In the 1890s, bicycles gave city workers a cheap way to get around. (2) Riders could often cross town faster than crowded streetcars. (3) My cousin recently bought a mountain bike for weekend trips. (4) Bicycles even encouraged cities to pave smoother roads.
(A) Sentence 1
(B) Sentence 2
(C) Sentence 3
(D) Sentence 4
55. Which of these sentences expresses the idea most clearly?
(A) Walking to school, the rain soaked Jaden's backpack.
(B) While Jaden walked to school, the rain soaked his backpack.
(C) Jaden's backpack, walking to school, was soaked by the rain.
(D) The rain, while walking to school, soaked Jaden's backpack.
56. Which choice best combines the sentences? "The museum opened a new dinosaur exhibit. Thousands of visitors came during the first week."
(A) The museum opened a new dinosaur exhibit, thousands of visitors came during the first week.
(B) The museum opened a new dinosaur exhibit, or thousands of visitors came during the first week.
(C) Thousands of visitors, the museum opened a new dinosaur exhibit during the first week.
(D) When the museum opened a new dinosaur exhibit, thousands of visitors came during the first week.
57. Choose the word that best joins the thoughts. "Keisha wanted to try out for the soccer team; _______, she sprained her ankle the day before tryouts."
(A) therefore
(B) similarly
(C) unfortunately
(D) meanwhile
58. Which sentence does not belong in this paragraph? (1) Plastic bottles are found in many household trash bins. (2) Recycling aluminum uses far less energy than making new metal from ore. (3) A recycled aluminum can may be back on a store shelf in about sixty days. (4) Because of these savings, many cities collect aluminum cans separately.
(A) Sentence 1
(B) Sentence 2
(C) Sentence 3
(D) Sentence 4
59. Which sentence would make the best topic sentence for a paragraph about volunteering at an animal shelter?
(A) Dogs come in many different breeds and sizes.
(B) Some animal shelters close early on holidays.
(C) Cats usually sleep for many hours each day.
(D) Volunteering at an animal shelter is a rewarding way to help both pets and people.
60. Which of these sentences expresses the idea most clearly?
(A) After finishing the test early, checking the answers seemed wise to Liam.
(B) After finishing the test early, Liam wisely checked his answers.
(C) Liam, after the test being finished early, checked wisely his answers.
(D) Checking his answers, the test was finished early by Liam.
Answer Key
Step-by-step explanations for every question are available in the online simulator after completing the test.