Printable version — Practice Test 3
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Practice Test 3
298 questions · 5 separately timed sections. Time each section strictly, as shown at the start of each section.
Section 1: Verbal Skills
60 questions — Time limit: 16 minutes
Choose the word that means the same or about the same as the underlined word.
1. Astute most nearly means
(A) foolish
(B) stubborn
(C) rude
(D) clever
2. Counterfeit most nearly means
(A) fake
(B) valuable
(C) ancient
(D) foreign
3. Amiable most nearly means
(A) angry
(B) nervous
(C) friendly
(D) silent
4. Summon most nearly means
(A) dismiss
(B) guess
(C) call
(D) add
5. Diligent most nearly means
(A) hardworking
(B) careless
(C) talented
(D) cheerful
6. Brisk most nearly means
(A) lazy
(B) quick
(C) broken
(D) smooth
7. Sever most nearly means
(A) cut
(B) mend
(C) punish
(D) save
8. Exuberant most nearly means
(A) exhausted
(B) wealthy
(C) enthusiastic
(D) accurate
9. Mimic most nearly means
(A) ignore
(B) scold
(C) describe
(D) imitate
10. Clamor most nearly means
(A) uproar
(B) whisper
(C) climb
(D) praise
11. Abolish most nearly means
(A) create
(B) polish
(C) repair
(D) end
12. Hasten most nearly means
(A) delay
(B) listen
(C) fasten
(D) hurry
13. Dormant most nearly means
(A) dangerous
(B) noisy
(C) inactive
(D) open
14. Rigid most nearly means
(A) flexible
(B) stiff
(C) heavy
(D) rough
15. Dwindle most nearly means
(A) expand
(B) shrink
(C) twinkle
(D) wander
Choose the word that means the opposite of the word in capital letters.
16. DEARTH means the opposite of
(A) shortage
(B) sorrow
(C) silence
(D) surplus
17. BRAZEN means the opposite of
(A) bold
(B) bashful
(C) noisy
(D) metallic
18. SQUANDER means the opposite of
(A) scatter
(B) waste
(C) conserve
(D) borrow
19. VERBOSE means the opposite of
(A) talkative
(B) terse
(C) lengthy
(D) loud
20. CURTAIL means the opposite of
(A) shorten
(B) restrain
(C) prolong
(D) divide
21. ZEALOUS means the opposite of
(A) indifferent
(B) eager
(C) jealous
(D) devoted
22. WANE means the opposite of
(A) dwindle
(B) increase
(C) vanish
(D) dim
23. STAGNANT means the opposite of
(A) murky
(B) still
(C) shallow
(D) flowing
24. DISDAIN means the opposite of
(A) admiration
(B) scorn
(C) doubt
(D) envy
Choose the word that best completes the analogy.
25. Wheel is to bicycle as sail is to
(A) wind
(B) boat
(C) ocean
(D) rope
26. Teacher is to classroom as pilot is to
(A) cockpit
(B) runway
(C) passenger
(D) airport
27. Sweater is to wool as candle is to
(A) wick
(B) flame
(C) light
(D) wax
28. Fish is to school as wolf is to
(A) den
(B) forest
(C) pack
(D) herd
29. Baker is to bread as potter is to
(A) pottery
(B) clay
(C) kiln
(D) wheel
30. Lion is to roar as snake is to
(A) hiss
(B) slither
(C) venom
(D) coil
31. Vast is to enormous as tiny is to
(A) broad
(B) minuscule
(C) moderate
(D) brief
32. Whisper is to shout as glance is to
(A) blink
(B) wink
(C) stare
(D) squint
33. Arrive is to depart as ascend is to
(A) climb
(B) soar
(C) descend
(D) pause
34. Broom is to sweep as ruler is to
(A) straighten
(B) draw
(C) erase
(D) measure
Choose the word that does not belong with the others.
35. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) lung
(B) kidney
(C) femur
(D) liver
36. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) uncle
(B) cousin
(C) neighbor
(D) nephew
37. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) granite
(B) ruby
(C) emerald
(D) sapphire
38. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) pencil
(B) eraser
(C) marker
(D) crayon
39. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) sweet
(B) sour
(C) bitter
(D) loud
40. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) dresser
(B) curtain
(C) sofa
(D) bookcase
41. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) whisper
(B) murmur
(C) glance
(D) mumble
42. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) bat
(B) robin
(C) sparrow
(D) eagle
43. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) truck
(B) motorcycle
(C) bus
(D) canoe
44. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) meadow
(B) cottage
(C) mansion
(D) cabin
45. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) jar
(B) bucket
(C) crate
(D) spoon
46. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) listen
(B) watch
(C) sniff
(D) carry
47. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) golf
(B) soccer
(C) hockey
(D) basketball
48. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) peach
(B) apple
(C) carrot
(D) cherry
49. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) April
(B) winter
(C) October
(D) June
50. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) jacket
(B) suitcase
(C) sweater
(D) scarf
If the first two statements are true, decide whether the third statement is true, false, or uncertain.
51. The red team scored fewer points than the gold team. The gold team scored fewer points than the silver team. The silver team scored more points than the red team. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
52. Tara owns more baseball cards than Felix. Felix owns more baseball cards than Omar. Omar owns fewer baseball cards than Tara. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
53. Devon wakes up earlier than Sofia. Devon wakes up earlier than Henry. Sofia wakes up earlier than Henry. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
54. Aisha's suitcase is heavier than Ben's suitcase. Ben's suitcase is heavier than Kim's suitcase. Kim's suitcase is heavier than Aisha's suitcase. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
55. The oak tree on Elm Street is taller than the maple tree. The pine tree is taller than the maple tree. The pine tree is taller than the oak tree. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
56. Lena's essay is longer than Marcus's essay. Marcus's essay is longer than Jade's essay. Jade's essay is longer than Marcus's essay. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
57. Maya's backpack weighs more than Jordan's backpack. Jordan's backpack weighs more than Priya's backpack. Maya's backpack weighs more than Priya's backpack. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
58. The library is farther from the school than the park is. The swimming pool is farther from the school than the library is. The swimming pool is farther from the school than the park is. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
59. Carlos finished the race before Dana. Dana finished the race before Miguel. Miguel finished the race before Carlos. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
60. Some of the books on the shelf are mysteries. All of the mysteries on the shelf are paperbacks. All of the books on the shelf are paperbacks. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
Section 2: Quantitative Skills
52 questions — Time limit: 30 minutes
Choose the number that should come next (or that fits the blank) in the series.
1. Look at this series: 100, 1, 90, 4, 80, 7, ... What number should come next?
(A) 10
(B) 60
(C) 70
(D) 75
2. Look at this series: 2, 9, 28, 65, ... What number should come next?
(A) 124
(B) 125
(C) 126
(D) 130
3. Look at this series: 40, 39, 36, 31, ... What number should come next?
(A) 24
(B) 25
(C) 26
(D) 28
4. Look at this series: 83, 75, 67, 59, ... What number should come next?
(A) 49
(B) 50
(C) 51
(D) 53
5. Look at this series: 6, 10, 18, 30, 46, ... What number should come next?
(A) 62
(B) 66
(C) 68
(D) 70
6. Look at this series: 3, 8, 15, 24, 35, ... What number should come next?
(A) 45
(B) 48
(C) 49
(D) 50
7. Look at this series: 12, 21, 17, 26, 22, ... What number should come next?
(A) 18
(B) 27
(C) 31
(D) 36
8. Look at this series: 3, 4, 7, 11, 18, ... What number should come next?
(A) 29
(B) 30
(C) 32
(D) 36
9. Look at this series: 5, 10, 13, 26, 29, ... What number should come next?
(A) 32
(B) 54
(C) 56
(D) 58
10. Look at this series: 9, 15, 21, 27, 33, ... What number should come next?
(A) 37
(B) 38
(C) 39
(D) 40
11. Look at this series: 20, 15, 30, 25, 50, ... What number should come next?
(A) 45
(B) 55
(C) 90
(D) 100
12. Look at this series: 1/2, 3/4, 1, 1 1/4, ... What number should come next?
(A) 1 1/3
(B) 1 1/2
(C) 1 3/4
(D) 2
13. Look at this series: 5, 3, 15, 5, 25, 7, ... What number should come next?
(A) 9
(B) 30
(C) 33
(D) 35
14. Look at this series: 750, 150, 30, ... What number should come next?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 10
(D) 15
15. Look at this series: 1.3, 1.7, 2.1, 2.5, ... What number should come next?
(A) 2.9
(B) 3.0
(C) 3.1
(D) 3.3
16. Look at this series: 3, 9, 7, 21, ___, 57, 55. What number should fill the blank?
(A) 17
(B) 19
(C) 23
(D) 25
17. Look at this series: 2, 8, 32, 128, ... What number should come next?
(A) 256
(B) 384
(C) 448
(D) 512
18. Look at this series: 7, 19, 31, ___, 55, 67. What number should fill the blank?
(A) 40
(B) 41
(C) 42
(D) 43
Examine the quantities and choose the best answer.
19. (a) (3 + 5) × 4 (b) 3 + 5 × 4 (c) 3 × 5 + 4
(A) (a) is greater than (b), and (b) is greater than (c)
(B) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(C) (b) is less than (c)
(D) (a) is less than (c)
20. (a) the number of degrees in a right angle (b) half the number of degrees in a straight angle (c) one-third of the sum of the angle measures of a triangle
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (c) is greater than (a)
(C) (a) and (b) are equal, and each is greater than (c)
(D) (b) is less than (c)
21. (a) the perimeter of a regular hexagon with sides of 4 centimeters (b) the perimeter of a square with sides of 6 centimeters (c) the perimeter of a regular pentagon with sides of 5 centimeters
(A) (a) and (b) are equal, and each is less than (c)
(B) (c) is less than (a)
(C) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(D) (b) is greater than (c)
22. (a) 2⁴ (b) 4² (c) 3³
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (a) is greater than (c)
(C) (c) is less than (b)
(D) (a) and (b) are equal, and each is less than (c)
23. (a) 10% of 350 (b) 1/2 of 68 (c) 6 × 6
(A) (a) is less than (b)
(B) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(C) (a) is greater than (b) and less than (c)
(D) (c) is less than (b)
24. (a) 0.6 × 30 (b) 60% of 30 (c) 3/5 of 30
(A) (a) is greater than (b)
(B) (c) is less than (a) and (b)
(C) (b) is greater than (c)
(D) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
25. (a) the area of a triangle with a base of 8 inches and a height of 6 inches (b) the area of a square with sides of 5 inches (c) the area of a rectangle that is 7 inches long and 4 inches wide
(A) (a) is greater than (b)
(B) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(C) (a) is less than (b), and (b) is less than (c)
(D) (c) is less than (a)
26. (a) the perimeter of a square with sides of 6 inches (b) the perimeter of a rectangle that is 8 inches long and 4 inches wide (c) the perimeter of an equilateral triangle with sides of 8 inches
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (a) is greater than (b) and (c)
(C) (c) is less than (a) and (b)
(D) (b) is greater than (a)
27. (a) 1/2 + 1/4 (b) 6/8 (c) 2/3
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (a) and (b) are equal, and each is greater than (c)
(C) (c) is greater than (a)
(D) (a) is less than (b)
28. (a) the measure of each angle of an equilateral triangle (b) the measure of each angle of a square (c) half the measure of a straight angle
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (a) is greater than (b)
(C) (c) is less than (b)
(D) (b) and (c) are equal, and each is greater than (a)
29. (a) the area of a square with sides of 5 centimeters (b) the area of a rectangle that is 6 centimeters long and 4 centimeters wide (c) the area of a triangle with a base of 10 centimeters and a height of 5 centimeters
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (a) and (c) are equal, and each is greater than (b)
(C) (b) is greater than (a) and (c)
(D) (a) is less than (b)
30. (a) the average of 12, 16, and 20 (b) 1/4 of 72 (c) 4²
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (a) and (c) are equal, and each is less than (b)
(C) (b) is less than (a)
(D) (c) is greater than (b)
31. (a) the area of a rectangle that is 12 meters long and 3 meters wide (b) the area of a square with sides of 6 meters (c) the area of a triangle with a base of 12 meters and a height of 8 meters
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (a) is greater than (c)
(C) (c) is less than (b)
(D) (a) and (b) are equal, and each is less than (c)
32. (a) the perimeter of a rectangle that is 10 feet long and 5 feet wide (b) the perimeter of a square with sides of 7 feet (c) the perimeter of an equilateral triangle with sides of 11 feet
(A) (a) is greater than (b) and less than (c)
(B) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(C) (b) is greater than (c)
(D) (a) is less than (b)
33. (a) 7 × 8 (b) 120 ÷ 2 (c) 50 + 4
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (b) is less than (c)
(C) (a) is greater than (c) and less than (b)
(D) (a) is greater than (b)
34. (a) 30% of 90 (b) 1/3 of 81 (c) 0.5 × 54
(A) (a) is greater than (b) and (c)
(B) (b) is less than (c)
(C) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(D) (c) is greater than (a)
35. (a) the sum of the angle measures of a quadrilateral (b) the number of degrees in a full circle (c) twice the sum of the angle measures of a triangle
(A) (a) is greater than (b) and (c)
(B) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(C) (c) is less than (a)
(D) (b) is greater than (c)
Work each problem and choose the best answer.
36. What is 3/5 of 60 decreased by 1/4 of 32?
(A) 28
(B) 30
(C) 36
(D) 44
37. What number is 9 less than 12% of 300?
(A) 27
(B) 30
(C) 36
(D) 45
38. What number is 5 more than 2/3 of 45?
(A) 25
(B) 30
(C) 35
(D) 40
39. When a number is tripled and then decreased by 6, the result is 45. What is the number?
(A) 13
(B) 15
(C) 17
(D) 51
40. What number is 20 more than the quotient of 144 and 6?
(A) 4
(B) 24
(C) 38
(D) 44
41. 40% of what number is 26?
(A) 10.4
(B) 40
(C) 52
(D) 65
42. What number is 3 times the difference between 51 and 39?
(A) 12
(B) 36
(C) 45
(D) 90
43. 3/4 of what number is 27?
(A) 18
(B) 36
(C) 40
(D) 45
44. What is the square of the sum of 5 and 7?
(A) 24
(B) 74
(C) 144
(D) 169
45. What number is 6 less than the product of 7 and 9?
(A) 57
(B) 63
(C) 66
(D) 69
46. What is the cube of 4 divided by the square of 2?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 16
47. What is the average of 14, 22, and 30?
(A) 20
(B) 22
(C) 24
(D) 33
48. If 2/5 of a number is 18, what is 1/2 of that number?
(A) 9
(B) 22.5
(C) 36
(D) 45
49. What number divided by 8 equals 12?
(A) 4
(B) 20
(C) 84
(D) 96
50. What number is 8 more than 25% of 64?
(A) 16
(B) 20
(C) 24
(D) 72
51. What is 1/2 of the sum of 34 and 48?
(A) 41
(B) 42
(C) 48
(D) 82
52. The sum of two numbers is 45, and one number is twice the other. What is the larger number?
(A) 15
(B) 22.5
(C) 30
(D) 35
Section 3: Reading
62 questions — Time limit: 25 minutes
Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
1. Which sentence best states the main idea of the passage?
(A) A young lifeguard rescues a boy who was yelling loudly for help.
(B) Head lifeguards enjoy quizzing new employees to embarrass them.
(C) Through training and a real rescue, the narrator learns that lifeguarding demands constant attentiveness.
(D) Community pools should hire more lifeguards during the summer.
2. According to Marisol, a swimmer who is in trouble usually
(A) struggles silently
(B) waves both arms in the air
(C) shouts for a lifeguard
(D) swims toward the nearest ladder
3. How often did Marisol tell the narrator to scan the water?
(A) once every minute
(B) every thirty seconds
(C) only when the pool was crowded
(D) every ten seconds
4. Why did Marisol most likely ask the narrator how many swimmers were in the deep end?
(A) to punish the narrator for arriving late
(B) to check whether the narrator was truly paying attention to the water
(C) because she had lost count of the swimmers herself
(D) to decide whether the pool should close early
5. Which detail signaled to the narrator that the boy near the rope was in trouble?
(A) His head was tilted back with his mouth barely above the surface.
(B) He was yelling and splashing to attract attention.
(C) He had drifted far into the middle of the deep end.
(D) He was waving toward the lifeguard chair.
6. As used in the passage, the word tedious most nearly means
(A) dangerous
(B) confusing
(C) boring
(D) exhausting
7. How do the narrator's feelings about the job change from the beginning to the end of the passage?
(A) from boredom to anger at Marisol
(B) from confidence to a lasting fear of the water
(C) from enjoying the rescue to regretting it
(D) from expecting an easy, relaxing job to understanding that it requires serious focus
8. Which title best fits the passage?
(A) How to Swim in the Deep End
(B) Eyes on the Water
(C) A Lazy Summer at the Pool
(D) The History of Lifeguarding
9. Which sentence best states the main idea of the passage?
(A) Glaciers are powerful, slow-moving forces that shape the land by wearing away rock and leaving deposits behind.
(B) The Great Lakes are the largest lakes ever formed by ice.
(C) Most of the world's glaciers are shrinking because summers are getting warmer.
(D) Mountains are the only landforms that glaciers can change.
10. According to the passage, what causes a glacier to begin flowing downhill?
(A) strong winter winds pushing the ice
(B) rivers running underneath the ice
(C) earthquakes shaking the mountainside
(D) the weight of its own thick ice
11. In the process the passage calls plucking, a glacier
(A) scrapes trapped rocks along the ground like sandpaper
(B) tears loose pieces of bedrock after meltwater freezes in cracks
(C) drops boulders far from where they started
(D) fills scooped-out basins with meltwater
12. According to the passage, how do valleys carved by glaciers differ from valleys cut by rivers?
(A) Glacier valleys are narrow and V-shaped.
(B) River valleys have flat floors and steep walls.
(C) Glacier valleys are broad and U-shaped, while river valleys are narrow and V-shaped.
(D) River valleys are always deeper than glacier valleys.
13. Striations in bedrock would be most useful to a scientist who wants to know
(A) how much snow falls in the area today
(B) how old the Great Lakes are
(C) how large an erratic can grow
(D) the direction a glacier once moved
14. As used in the passage, the word stranded most nearly means
(A) left behind
(B) broken apart
(C) melted down
(D) pushed uphill
15. According to the passage, a moraine is
(A) a sharp, pyramid-shaped mountain peak
(B) a long scratch left in polished bedrock
(C) a ridge of rock and soil dropped by melting ice
(D) a deep basin that fills with meltwater
16. The author's main purpose in this passage is to
(A) persuade readers to help protect the world's glaciers
(B) explain how glaciers form and reshape the land
(C) describe a personal journey across a glacier
(D) compare the Great Lakes with mountain lakes
17. This passage is mainly about
(A) the life and career of Karl von Drais
(B) how the bicycle developed gradually through a series of inventions
(C) why cities banned early bicycles from their sidewalks
(D) the many accidents caused by the penny-farthing
18. According to the passage, how did riders move the draisine forward?
(A) by turning pedals attached to the front wheel
(B) by using a chain connected to the rear wheel
(C) by coasting down gentle hills
(D) by pushing along the ground with their feet
19. According to the passage, why was the penny-farthing's front wheel so large?
(A) Since the pedals turned the front wheel directly, a bigger wheel was the only way to go faster.
(B) A larger wheel made the machine much safer to ride.
(C) Riders wanted to sit high enough to see over crowds.
(D) Cities required large wheels on all bicycles.
20. Which feature was part of Starley's Rover?
(A) a towering front wheel 1.5 meters tall
(B) stiff wooden wheels banded with iron
(C) a chain connecting the pedals to the rear wheel
(D) a frame that riders pushed with their feet
21. Based on the passage, the Rover was most likely called a "safety bicycle" because
(A) it was the first bicycle sold with a bell and lights
(B) riders sat closer to the ground, making falls far less dangerous than on a penny-farthing
(C) it traveled too slowly for riders to get hurt
(D) cities passed laws requiring safer machines
22. As used in the passage, the word perilous most nearly means
(A) dangerous
(B) expensive
(C) uncomfortable
(D) unpopular
23. What was John Boyd Dunlop's contribution to the bicycle?
(A) He invented the first bicycle pedals.
(B) He designed the penny-farthing.
(C) He introduced the chain drive to bicycles.
(D) He added air-filled rubber tires that made rides smoother.
24. Which title best fits the passage?
(A) Taking a Header: Famous Bicycle Accidents
(B) John Kemp Starley, England's Greatest Inventor
(C) From the Draisine to the Safety Bicycle: How the Bicycle Evolved
(D) Why Everyone Should Ride a Bicycle Today
25. Which sentence best states the main idea of the passage?
(A) Crop rotation is the fastest way to grow cotton in the South.
(B) George Washington Carver overcame early hardship to become a scientist who used his knowledge to help others.
(C) Iowa State College offered the best agriculture program in the country.
(D) The births of enslaved people were rarely recorded in the 1860s.
26. According to the passage, why did Carver never know his exact birthday?
(A) His family moved too often to keep any records.
(B) He was too sickly as a child to remember dates.
(C) The farm's papers were destroyed during the Civil War.
(D) The births of enslaved people were rarely written down.
27. Who invited Carver to lead the agriculture department at the Tuskegee Institute?
(A) Booker T. Washington
(B) a group of Alabama farmers
(C) the president of Iowa State College
(D) the neighbors who called him "the plant doctor"
28. According to the passage, one reason Carver urged farmers to alternate cotton with crops like peanuts is that peanuts
(A) sold for higher prices than cotton
(B) grew well in cold northern climates
(C) return nitrogen to worn-out soil
(D) needed no tools or labor to harvest
29. The passage suggests that Carver refused to patent most of his discoveries because he
(A) did not believe they were valuable
(B) was too busy teaching to fill out the paperwork
(C) believed his ideas should be shared freely
(D) feared other scientists would steal the credit
30. As used in the passage, the word ailing most nearly means
(A) expensive
(B) sick
(C) colorful
(D) hidden
31. The author's main purpose in writing this passage is to
(A) persuade readers to take up farming
(B) explain each step of crop rotation in detail
(C) entertain readers with a made-up adventure story
(D) describe the life and contributions of an important scientist
32. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
(A) The Plant Doctor: How George Washington Carver Helped a Nation Grow
(B) The History of Cotton Farming in Missouri
(C) Booker T. Washington: A Great American Educator
(D) How to Earn a Degree in Agriculture
33. Which sentence best states the main idea of the passage?
(A) Public libraries should stop lending books and focus on job training.
(B) Libraries are outdated because most information is now online.
(C) Story time is the most popular program at neighborhood libraries.
(D) Public libraries serve their neighborhoods in many important ways beyond lending books.
34. According to the passage, what happens at the neighborhood branch on Wednesday?
(A) A lawyer answers legal questions at no charge.
(B) A nurse checks blood pressure.
(C) Volunteers lead an English conversation circle.
(D) Teenagers record podcasts in the media room.
35. According to the passage, what do library branches often do on dangerously hot or cold days?
(A) close early to protect the librarians
(B) extend their hours so people have a safe place to go
(C) hand out free fans and heaters to residents
(D) move all of their programs to an outdoor park
36. The passage states that story time helps toddlers by
(A) teaching them to use the library's computers
(B) keeping them entertained while their parents apply for jobs
(C) preparing them to read before they start kindergarten
(D) training them to record podcasts of their own
37. The author would most likely agree with which of the following statements?
(A) A library's value cannot be measured only by the books it lends.
(B) Libraries should charge small fees so they depend less on taxes.
(C) The internet has made librarians unnecessary.
(D) Only people who cannot afford computers should visit libraries.
38. As used in the passage, the word obsolete most nearly means
(A) expensive
(B) popular
(C) crowded
(D) no longer useful
39. The author's main purpose in this passage is to
(A) tell an entertaining story about one librarian's career
(B) persuade readers that libraries remain valuable to their communities
(C) give step-by-step instructions for writing a résumé
(D) compare American libraries with libraries in other countries
40. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
(A) How to Get a Library Card
(B) The History of Public Libraries in America
(C) More Than Books: The Library as a Community Living Room
(D) Why Everything Is Online Now
Choose the word that means the same or about the same as the underlined word.
41. an adept negotiator
(A) clumsy
(B) skilled
(C) nervous
(D) famous
42. a sluggish stream
(A) narrow
(B) muddy
(C) winding
(D) slow
43. a futile attempt
(A) useless
(B) bold
(C) final
(D) clever
44. a grave decision
(A) hasty
(B) foolish
(C) serious
(D) sudden
45. a keen observer
(A) sharp
(B) casual
(C) reluctant
(D) cheerful
46. a compulsory meeting
(A) brief
(B) boring
(C) optional
(D) required
47. a drab waiting room
(A) tidy
(B) dull
(C) noisy
(D) cozy
48. a wary shopper
(A) tired
(B) cheerful
(C) cautious
(D) careless
49. a remedy for headaches
(A) cause
(B) symptom
(C) warning
(D) cure
50. a hidden hazard
(A) danger
(B) treasure
(C) passage
(D) message
51. a solemn vow
(A) song
(B) prayer
(C) promise
(D) speech
52. a remarkable feat
(A) failure
(B) accomplishment
(C) opinion
(D) journey
53. a bitter quarrel
(A) flavor
(B) memory
(C) defeat
(D) argument
54. overcome by fatigue
(A) exhaustion
(B) fear
(C) sadness
(D) hunger
55. a daring endeavor
(A) opinion
(B) attempt
(C) victory
(D) contest
56. to ponder the offer
(A) refuse
(B) accept
(C) consider
(D) ignore
57. to coax the kitten closer
(A) persuade
(B) chase
(C) frighten
(D) carry
58. to loathe cold showers
(A) prefer
(B) endure
(C) avoid
(D) hate
59. to grasp the main idea
(A) forget
(B) question
(C) understand
(D) repeat
60. to vex his classmates
(A) amuse
(B) annoy
(C) obey
(D) assist
61. to cease production
(A) speed
(B) delay
(C) resume
(D) stop
62. to salvage the cargo
(A) save
(B) sell
(C) sink
(D) weigh
Section 4: Mathematics
64 questions — Time limit: 45 minutes
Choose the best answer.
1. What is 6,247 rounded to the nearest hundred?
(A) 6,200
(B) 6,300
(C) 6,250
(D) 6,000
2. What is the least common multiple of 8 and 12?
(A) 4
(B) 96
(C) 48
(D) 24
3. What is the value of |−9|, the absolute value of −9?
(A) −9
(B) 0
(C) 1/9
(D) 9
4. An angle that measures exactly 90 degrees is called
(A) a right angle
(B) an acute angle
(C) an obtuse angle
(D) a straight angle
5. In the number 4,682.35, what is the value of the digit 8?
(A) 8
(B) 80
(C) 800
(D) 0.8
6. Which measure of a data set is the middle value when the numbers are arranged in order?
(A) mean
(B) median
(C) mode
(D) range
7. A triangle whose three sides all have different lengths is called
(A) equilateral
(B) isosceles
(C) scalene
(D) obtuse
8. Which is the best estimate of 398 × 51?
(A) 2,000
(B) 20,000
(C) 200,000
(D) 45,000
9. Which unit would be most appropriate for measuring the length of a school hallway?
(A) millimeters
(B) kilometers
(C) liters
(D) meters
10. The range of a data set is found by
(A) adding all the values and dividing by how many there are
(B) finding the value that appears most often
(C) subtracting the least value from the greatest value
(D) finding the middle value when the data are in order
11. Which of the following decimals is the greatest?
(A) 0.09
(B) 0.089
(C) 0.0999
(D) 0.1
12. The sum of the measures of the interior angles of any triangle is
(A) 90°
(B) 180°
(C) 270°
(D) 360°
13. Any nonzero number raised to the power of 0 equals
(A) 1
(B) 0
(C) the number itself
(D) 10
14. Two lines in the same plane that never intersect, no matter how far they are extended, are called
(A) perpendicular
(B) intersecting
(C) parallel
(D) vertical
15. The sum of any two odd numbers is always
(A) odd
(B) even
(C) prime
(D) divisible by 4
16. What is the greatest common factor of 24 and 36?
(A) 12
(B) 6
(C) 72
(D) 4
17. Which number is divisible by both 3 and 5?
(A) 25
(B) 36
(C) 45
(D) 50
18. Which expression is equal to 3 to the fourth power (3⁴)?
(A) 3 × 4
(B) 3 + 3 + 3 + 3
(C) 3 × 3 × 3 × 3
(D) 4 × 4 × 4
19. The square root of 50 lies between which two consecutive whole numbers?
(A) 7 and 8
(B) 6 and 7
(C) 8 and 9
(D) 49 and 51
20. Which equation is an example of the commutative property of addition?
(A) 4 + 7 = 7 + 4
(B) (2 + 3) + 5 = 2 + (3 + 5)
(C) 6 + 0 = 6
(D) 3 × (4 + 2) = 3 × 4 + 3 × 2
21. Which of the following numbers is a prime number?
(A) 51
(B) 57
(C) 53
(D) 91
22. What is the probability of an event that is certain to happen?
(A) 0
(B) 1/2
(C) 100
(D) 1
23. Which of the following fractions is the greatest?
(A) 3/5
(B) 2/3
(C) 1/2
(D) 5/8
24. Which of the following is equal to 25%?
(A) 1/25
(B) 2.5
(C) 25
(D) 1/4
Solve each problem and choose the best answer.
25. At the school fair silent auction, a board game with an original price of $45 sells for $36. By what percent was the price reduced?
(A) 25%
(B) 9%
(C) 20%
(D) 15%
26. A swim team hoodie is priced at $40.00. It is on sale for 25% off, and a 5% sales tax is added to the sale price. What is the total cost of the hoodie?
(A) $30.00
(B) $32.00
(C) $28.50
(D) $31.50
27. The Thursday-night bowling league has 54 members. The ratio of adults to students is 4 to 5. How many students are in the league?
(A) 24
(B) 30
(C) 27
(D) 36
28. A skateboard at Ridgeline Sports costs $60.00 before tax. If the sales tax rate is 7%, what is the total cost of the skateboard?
(A) $64.20
(B) $4.20
(C) $67.00
(D) $55.80
29. At the Maple Grove school fair, Priya starts with 96 raffle tickets. She sells 3/4 of them in the morning and 1/6 of them in the afternoon. How many tickets does she have left?
(A) 16
(B) 24
(C) 8
(D) 12
30. In the Riverside community garden, the ratio of tomato plants to pepper plants is 5 to 3. If there are 40 tomato plants, how many pepper plants are there?
(A) 24
(B) 15
(C) 30
(D) 25
31. If 3(x - 4) = 21, what is the value of x?
(A) 7
(B) 9
(C) 11
(D) 12
32. The lemonade stand at the school fair uses 2/3 cup of sugar for each pitcher. How many full pitchers can be made with 8 cups of sugar?
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 16
(D) 5 1/3
33. If 4x + 9 = 41, what is the value of x?
(A) 12.5
(B) 10
(C) 6
(D) 8
34. Tessa deposits $600 that she earned teaching swim lessons into a savings account that pays 4% simple interest per year. How much interest will she earn in 3 years?
(A) $24
(B) $96
(C) $72
(D) $720
35. Marcus's paper route is 4.5 miles long. So far this morning he has ridden 2.85 miles. How many more miles must he ride to finish the route?
(A) 1.65 miles
(B) 1.75 miles
(C) 2.35 miles
(D) 1.55 miles
36. Leo and Sam both have paper routes. Leo delivers 3 more than twice the number of papers Sam delivers. If Leo delivers 17 papers, how many papers does Sam deliver?
(A) 7
(B) 10
(C) 17
(D) 5
37. A wetsuit that regularly costs $80 is marked 35% off at the swim shop's end-of-season sale. What is the sale price?
(A) $28
(B) $52
(C) $45
(D) $56
38. During a six-day recycling drive, Mr. Alvarez's class collected 12, 19, 7, 15, 22, and 9 pounds of cans. What is the median number of pounds collected?
(A) 14
(B) 13.5
(C) 12
(D) 15
39. At the school fair, ride tickets are sold at 4 tickets for $7. At this rate, how much will 20 tickets cost?
(A) $28
(B) $30
(C) $35
(D) $40
40. At the swim meet snack table, granola bars cost $0.85 each. Dana buys 6 granola bars and pays with a $10 bill. How much change should she receive?
(A) $5.10
(B) $4.10
(C) $5.90
(D) $4.90
41. At the swim meet, Keisha swims the 50-meter freestyle five times with times of 34, 36, 33, 38, and 34 seconds. What is her mean (average) time?
(A) 34 seconds
(B) 33 seconds
(C) 36 seconds
(D) 35 seconds
42. The sum of three consecutive whole numbers is 87. What is the largest of the three numbers?
(A) 29
(B) 30
(C) 28
(D) 31
43. The nature trail behind Cedar Hill School is 2.5 miles long. How many feet long is the trail? (1 mile = 5,280 feet)
(A) 13,200 feet
(B) 10,560 feet
(C) 12,500 feet
(D) 13,000 feet
44. The fruit punch booth at the school fair needs 18 quarts of punch for the afternoon crowd. How many gallons of punch is this? (1 gallon = 4 quarts)
(A) 9 gallons
(B) 72 gallons
(C) 4 gallons
(D) 4.5 gallons
45. A jar holds 5 lemon candies, 3 cherry candies, and 12 grape candies. If one candy is picked at random, what is the probability that it is NOT grape?
(A) 3/5
(B) 2/3
(C) 2/5
(D) 1/2
46. In a triangle, two of the angles measure 48 degrees and 63 degrees. What is the measure of the third angle?
(A) 111 degrees
(B) 59 degrees
(C) 69 degrees
(D) 79 degrees
47. A scuba diver is at 15 feet below sea level. She descends another 9 feet, then rises 6 feet. What is her position compared to sea level?
(A) 12 feet below
(B) 18 feet below
(C) 30 feet below
(D) 18 feet above
48. A jacket priced at $60 is on sale for 20% off. After the discount, a $5 coupon is subtracted from the price. What is the final cost of the jacket?
(A) $44.00
(B) $48.00
(C) $55.00
(D) $43.00
49. Two angles together form a straight line. One angle is 3 times as large as the other. What is the measure of the larger angle?
(A) 135 degrees
(B) 45 degrees
(C) 60 degrees
(D) 67.5 degrees
50. A train travels 180 miles in 3 hours. At the same speed, how far will it travel in 5 hours?
(A) 240 miles
(B) 300 miles
(C) 360 miles
(D) 108 miles
51. An L-shaped playroom floor is made from a rectangle 10 meters long and 6 meters wide with a smaller rectangle, 4 meters by 3 meters, cut out of one corner. What is the area of the floor?
(A) 42 square meters
(B) 60 square meters
(C) 72 square meters
(D) 48 square meters
52. At 6 A.M. the temperature was −8°F. By noon it had risen 15 degrees, and by evening it had dropped 6 degrees from the noon temperature. What was the evening temperature?
(A) −1°F
(B) 1°F
(C) 13°F
(D) −17°F
53. Keisha earns $9 per hour babysitting. She worked 4 hours on Friday and 5.5 hours on Saturday. If she spends $35 of her earnings on a gift, how much money does she have left?
(A) $49.50
(B) $85.50
(C) $50.50
(D) $54.50
54. A bag contains 5 red marbles, 3 blue marbles, and 4 green marbles. If one marble is drawn at random, what is the probability that it is blue?
(A) 1/4
(B) 1/3
(C) 3/5
(D) 1/12
55. Maria rides her bike 12 miles at a steady speed of 8 miles per hour. How long does her ride take?
(A) 1 hour 20 minutes
(B) 2 hours
(C) 1 hour 30 minutes
(D) 1 hour 40 minutes
56. A storage container shaped like a rectangular prism has a volume of 240 cubic feet. Its base is 10 feet long and 6 feet wide. How tall is the container?
(A) 4 feet
(B) 6 feet
(C) 24 feet
(D) 40 feet
57. Two angles are complementary. If one angle measures 34 degrees, what is the measure of the other angle?
(A) 66 degrees
(B) 146 degrees
(C) 44 degrees
(D) 56 degrees
58. A rectangular garden is 14 feet long and 9 feet wide. What is the perimeter of the garden?
(A) 23 feet
(B) 46 feet
(C) 92 feet
(D) 126 feet
59. A bus leaves the station at 9:15 A.M. and arrives at its destination at 11:45 A.M., traveling 125 miles. What was the bus's average speed?
(A) 62.5 miles per hour
(B) 45 miles per hour
(C) 55 miles per hour
(D) 50 miles per hour
60. A square poster has a perimeter of 36 inches. What is the area of the poster?
(A) 81 square inches
(B) 324 square inches
(C) 36 square inches
(D) 18 square inches
61. A rectangular swimming pool is 20 feet long and 12 feet wide. A concrete walkway 3 feet wide surrounds the pool on all four sides. What is the area of the walkway alone?
(A) 96 square feet
(B) 468 square feet
(C) 228 square feet
(D) 240 square feet
62. A science class watches a bacteria culture that doubles in size every hour. If the culture starts with 5 bacteria, how many bacteria will there be after 4 hours?
(A) 40
(B) 20
(C) 160
(D) 80
63. Jordan buys 3 notebooks that cost $2.75 each and a pack of pens for $4.50. If he pays with a $20 bill, how much change should he receive?
(A) $7.25
(B) $12.75
(C) $10.00
(D) $6.75
64. A cereal box is 8 inches long, 3 inches wide, and 12 inches tall. What is the volume of the box?
(A) 96 cubic inches
(B) 288 cubic inches
(C) 312 cubic inches
(D) 23 cubic inches
Section 5: Language
60 questions — Time limit: 25 minutes
Look for errors in punctuation, capitalization, or usage. If there is no error, choose (D).
1. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Bella, our beagle, buried her bone under the porch.
(B) The veterinarian said our rabbit is perfectly healthy.
(C) The puppy has already ate two bowls of kibble this morning.
(D) No mistakes.
2. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Autumn leaves drifted across the sidewalk in front of our house.
(B) Winter is my favorite season because I love to ski.
(C) The first day of spring brought warm sunshine and a gentle breeze.
(D) No mistakes.
3. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Priya tested three brands of paper towels for her science fair project.
(B) The judges asked each student to explain his or her experiment.
(C) Our science fair will be held on the first friday in March.
(D) No mistakes.
4. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Every autumn, geese fly south in long, wavering lines.
(B) A cool breeze made the summer evening feel comfortable.
(C) The days grows shorter as winter approaches.
(D) No mistakes.
5. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) We crossed the Mississippi River just after sunrise.
(B) Our family visited aunt Carla on the way to the coast.
(C) The motel had a swimming pool shaped like a guitar.
(D) No mistakes.
6. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The photography club displayed its best pictures in the main hallway.
(B) Students who join the robotics club learn to build simple machines.
(C) Elena was elected treasurer of the Spanish club in September.
(D) No mistakes.
7. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) My neighbor walks her golden retriever every morning.
(B) The kitten chased a ball of yarn across the kitchen floor.
(C) The cats bowl was empty, so Jaden filled it with fresh water.
(D) No mistakes.
8. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Last winter, the pond behind our school freezed solid.
(B) Summer afternoons are perfect for swimming at the community pool.
(C) The maple trees turn bright red and orange every October.
(D) No mistakes.
9. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) My cat hides under the bed whenever thunder rumbles.
(B) Me and Jordan taught the parakeet to whistle a tune.
(C) The goldfish swim to the surface when they expect food.
(D) No mistakes.
10. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Devon measured how quickly ice melted in salt water.
(B) The gymnasium was crowded with students and their projects.
(C) A blue ribbon was awarded to the most original experiment.
(D) No mistakes.
11. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The chess team practiced all month they still lost the tournament.
(B) After school, the choir rehearsed songs for the spring concert.
(C) Membership in the hiking club has doubled since last year.
(D) No mistakes.
12. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The chess club meets every Tuesday in the library.
(B) Each of the debate team members were given a new topic.
(C) Our drama club performed a play for the whole school.
(D) No mistakes.
13. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Yesterday, Liam brung his project to school on a rolling cart.
(B) The students had worked on their experiments for several weeks.
(C) Judges will announce the winners at the end of the day.
(D) No mistakes.
14. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The trees lost all their leaves by Novembers end.
(B) Heavy snow closed the schools for two days in January.
(C) We planted tomatoes in the garden as soon as the frost passed.
(D) No mistakes.
15. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Keisha built a small volcano that erupted with foamy lava.
(B) Several parents volunteered to help set up the display tables.
(C) The winning project compared plant growth under different colors of light.
(D) No mistakes.
16. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The art club painted a colorful mural near the cafeteria.
(B) Anyone who enjoys writing should consider joining the newspaper staff.
(C) The advisor asked Tyler and she to plan the club's bake sale.
(D) No mistakes.
17. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Before we left, Mom checked the tires and filled the gas tank.
(B) We drove for six hours, the scenery never got boring.
(C) My sister read her map while I watched for road signs.
(D) No mistakes.
18. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) We packed sandwiches, fruit, and water bottles for the long drive.
(B) The mountains appeared on the horizon late in the afternoon.
(C) Dad pulled over at a scenic overlook so we could take pictures.
(D) No mistakes.
19. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Dad let my brother and I choose the music for the road trip.
(B) We stopped at a diner just outside of Memphis for lunch.
(C) The highway stretched for miles across the flat desert.
(D) No mistakes.
20. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Hamsters usually sleep during the day and play at night.
(B) The box of dog treats sit on the highest shelf in the pantry.
(C) Our parrot repeats almost everything my little brother says.
(D) No mistakes.
21. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The rosebush lost it's leaves during the heat wave.
(B) Weeds grow quickly if you ignore the garden for a week.
(C) Grandpa spreads mulch around the trees each spring.
(D) No mistakes.
22. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The garden club meets on the first Saturday of each month.
(B) We bought seeds at a nursery on maple street.
(C) Ladybugs help protect plants by eating aphids.
(D) No mistakes.
23. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Coach Rivera told the team to stretch before running laps.
(B) Practice ends at five o'clock on Tuesdays and Thursdays.
(C) Jamal improved his free throw by practicing every day.
(D) No mistakes.
24. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Nadia planted tomatoes, peppers, and squash in the raised bed.
(B) After the last frost, we moved the seedlings outside.
(C) Before you water the roses check the soil with your finger.
(D) No mistakes.
25. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) There were less thunderstorms this summer than last year.
(B) The forecast calls for light rain on Wednesday morning.
(C) A cold front moved through the valley overnight.
(D) No mistakes.
26. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The team practices passing drills every afternoon.
(B) The loud crowd didn't effect the kicker's concentration.
(C) Coach Lee posted the new schedule on the locker room door.
(D) No mistakes.
27. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The exhibit on ancient Egypt included a model of a pyramid.
(B) Visitors are asked to speak quietly in the gallery.
(C) My favorite display was the collection of old telescopes.
(D) No mistakes.
28. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The hail dented the roof of the old barn.
(B) We couldn't hardly see the road through the fog.
(C) By noon, the sun had melted most of the snow.
(D) No mistakes.
29. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Dad asked, "Who wants another slice of cornbread?"
(B) "Add a pinch of salt" said Grandma, stirring the pot.
(C) The recipe says to bake the casserole for forty minutes.
(D) No mistakes.
30. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The chefs left they're aprons hanging by the oven.
(B) Marisol whisked the eggs until they were fluffy.
(C) The soup simmered on the stove for two hours.
(D) No mistakes.
31. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Our guide recommended the exhibit titled wonders of the ancient world.
(B) The museum's gift shop sells posters of famous sculptures.
(C) A volunteer explained how the mummies were preserved.
(D) No mistakes.
32. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Sunflowers can grow taller than six feet in one season.
(B) Mia waters her herb garden every morning before school.
(C) The pumpkin vines spread across the entire backyard.
(D) No mistakes.
33. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) This chili is spicier than the batch we made last week.
(B) Elena chopped the onions while her brother grated the cheese.
(C) Of the two pies, the apple one is the most delicious.
(D) No mistakes.
34. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Hana sketched the marble statue in her notebook.
(B) The dinosaur skeletons are on the museum's second floor.
(C) The tour guide gave Hana and I a map of the exhibits.
(D) No mistakes.
35. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The bakers set there mixing bowls on the counter.
(B) Yeast dough rises best in a warm, draft-free spot.
(C) Tomas sprinkled flour on the board before kneading.
(D) No mistakes.
36. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Thick clouds gathered over the mountains before the storm.
(B) Snow fell steadily, and the streets grew quiet.
(C) The meteorologist said, that the storm would pass by midnight.
(D) No mistakes.
37. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) A rainbow stretched across the sky after the shower.
(B) The temperature dropped ten degrees in a single hour.
(C) Farmers welcomed the steady rain after a dry month.
(D) No mistakes.
38. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Priya dribbled past two defenders and scored.
(B) The goalie blocked the shot with her left hand.
(C) Marcus pitched really good in yesterday's game.
(D) No mistakes.
39. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The swimmers practice their turns at both ends of the pool.
(B) Runners should drink water before and after each workout.
(C) Our team won the relay by less than a second.
(D) No mistakes.
40. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Our class visited the science museum on Friday.
(B) The tour guide showed us a painting by claude monet.
(C) We ate lunch near the fountain in the courtyard.
(D) No mistakes.
Look for mistakes in spelling only.
41. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The coach reminded us to bring water bottles to every practice.
(B) I beleive the bus arrives at seven o'clock every morning.
(C) Darnell painted the fence a bright shade of blue on Saturday.
(D) No mistakes.
42. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Choosing a topic for my science report was a difficult desision.
(B) The orchestra practiced the new piece until it sounded perfect.
(C) A gentle breeze cooled the crowded stadium during the game.
(D) No mistakes.
43. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) My neighbor probably left for work before sunrise on Wednesday.
(B) The audience applauded when the magician finished her final trick.
(C) We answered every question on the history quiz with confidence.
(D) No mistakes.
44. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The bakery on the corner sells fresh muffins every morning.
(B) Uncle Theo repaired the squeaky hinge on the garden gate.
(C) Our school holds its winter concert every Febuary.
(D) No mistakes.
45. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The twins built an enormous sandcastle near the lifeguard tower.
(B) Please remember to return your library books by Friday afternoon.
(C) My aunt runs a small buisness that sells handmade candles.
(D) No mistakes.
46. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Elena enjoys learning foriegn languages such as Japanese and French.
(B) The captain steered the ferry carefully through the narrow channel.
(C) Grandma's quilt is made from dozens of colorful fabric squares.
(D) No mistakes.
47. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) At the begining of the movie, the hero discovers a mysterious map.
(B) Our class collected canned food for the neighborhood pantry.
(C) The puppy chased its tail around the living room for several minutes.
(D) No mistakes.
48. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The mechanic finally found the source of the strange noise.
(B) Everyone on the committee agreed to schedule the fair for June.
(C) A surprise thunderstorm interrupted our picnic at the park.
(D) No mistakes.
49. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Jasmine taped the concert poster to her bedroom wall.
(B) Recycling paper and glass helps protect the enviroment for future generations.
(C) The farmers gathered the last of the corn before the frost arrived.
(D) No mistakes.
50. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The janitor propped the heavy door open with a wooden wedge.
(B) We were greatful for the volunteers who cleaned up the beach.
(C) Miguel sketched the old lighthouse in his art notebook.
(D) No mistakes.
Choose the best answer.
51. Which sentence would make the best topic sentence for a paragraph about how exercise helps students in school?
(A) Regular exercise helps students concentrate better, sleep more soundly, and feel less stressed.
(B) Professional basketball courts are ninety-four feet long.
(C) Some students ride their bikes to school in the fall.
(D) Gym shoes should be replaced when the soles wear down.
52. Which choice best combines the sentences? "Tyler saved his allowance for months. He wanted to buy a new skateboard."
(A) Tyler saved his allowance for months, he wanted to buy a new skateboard.
(B) Tyler saved his allowance for months, yet he wanted to buy a new skateboard.
(C) Because he wanted to buy a new skateboard, Tyler saved his allowance for months.
(D) Tyler saved his allowance for months and buying a new skateboard was the thing that he wanted.
53. Which sentence would make the best topic sentence for a paragraph about the benefits of learning to cook at a young age?
(A) Learning to cook at a young age teaches children independence, math skills, and healthy habits.
(B) Some ovens can heat up to five hundred degrees.
(C) My favorite meal is spaghetti with meatballs.
(D) Grocery stores often place cereal boxes on the middle shelves.
54. Which sentence does not belong in this paragraph? (1) Honeybees perform a special dance to tell hive mates where flowers are. (2) The angle of the dance shows the direction of the food. (3) Butterflies have colorful wings that help them attract mates. (4) The length of the dance tells the other bees how far away the flowers are.
(A) Sentence 1
(B) Sentence 2
(C) Sentence 3
(D) Sentence 4
55. Which sentence does not belong in this paragraph? (1) Over millions of years, the Colorado River carved the Grand Canyon out of solid rock. (2) Layer by layer, the flowing water wore away the stone. (3) Today the canyon is more than a mile deep in some places. (4) Arizona summers can be uncomfortably hot for tourists.
(A) Sentence 1
(B) Sentence 2
(C) Sentence 3
(D) Sentence 4
56. Which choice best combines the sentences? "The storm knocked out the power. The students finished their homework by flashlight."
(A) The storm knocked out the power, the students finished their homework by flashlight.
(B) The storm knocked out the power, or the students finished their homework by flashlight.
(C) The students finished their homework by the storm knocking out the flashlight power.
(D) After the storm knocked out the power, the students finished their homework by flashlight.
57. Which of these sentences expresses the idea most clearly?
(A) Riding the bus to camp, the mountains amazed Priya.
(B) As Priya rode the bus to camp, the mountains amazed her.
(C) The mountains, riding the bus to camp, amazed Priya.
(D) Priya, amazed by the mountains, the bus rode to camp.
58. Choose the word that best joins the thoughts. "Noah forgot to water the tomato plants for two weeks; _______, they wilted in the summer heat."
(A) similarly
(B) nevertheless
(C) as a result
(D) for instance
59. Which of these sentences expresses the idea most clearly?
(A) Warm and delicious, Grandpa served the bread to us.
(B) Grandpa served us the bread, which was warm and delicious.
(C) Grandpa served us the bread warm and being delicious.
(D) The bread served us Grandpa, warm and delicious.
60. Choose the word that best joins the thoughts. "The hikers checked the weather forecast before leaving; _______, they packed rain jackets and extra socks."
(A) otherwise
(B) instead
(C) for example
(D) furthermore
Answer Key
Step-by-step explanations for every question are available in the online simulator after completing the test.