Printable version — Practice Test 5
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Practice Test 5
298 questions · 5 separately timed sections. Time each section strictly, as shown at the start of each section.
Section 1: Verbal Skills
60 questions — Time limit: 16 minutes
1. Choose the word most similar in meaning to the capitalized word. ELUSIVE
(A) common
(B) slippery
(C) rigid
(D) obvious
2. Choose the word most similar in meaning to the capitalized word. ABRIDGE
(A) lengthen
(B) confuse
(C) discard
(D) condense
3. Choose the word most similar in meaning to the capitalized word. VIGILANT
(A) alert
(B) weary
(C) reckless
(D) sleepy
4. Choose the word most similar in meaning to the capitalized word. BENEVOLENT
(A) harsh
(B) selfish
(C) charitable
(D) distant
5. Choose the word most similar in meaning to the capitalized word. IMPECCABLE
(A) casual
(B) stained
(C) partial
(D) faultless
6. Choose the word most opposite in meaning to the capitalized word. SCARCE
(A) meager
(B) limited
(C) plentiful
(D) rare
7. Choose the word most opposite in meaning to the capitalized word. HINDER
(A) disrupt
(B) assist
(C) delay
(D) obstruct
8. Choose the word most opposite in meaning to the capitalized word. TRANSPARENT
(A) opaque
(B) fragile
(C) clear
(D) obvious
9. Choose the word most opposite in meaning to the capitalized word. COMPLY
(A) submit
(B) defy
(C) adhere
(D) agree
10. Choose the word most opposite in meaning to the capitalized word. HUMBLE
(A) arrogant
(B) plain
(C) meek
(D) modest
11. Complete the analogy. Seed : Sprout :: Caterpillar : —
(A) larva
(B) cocoon
(C) moth
(D) butterfly
12. Complete the analogy. Composer : Symphony :: Author : —
(A) publisher
(B) reader
(C) novel
(D) paragraph
13. Complete the analogy. Fragile : Break :: Elastic : —
(A) bend
(B) compress
(C) stretch
(D) tear
14. Complete the analogy. Oasis : Desert :: Harbor : —
(A) lighthouse
(B) ship
(C) island
(D) coastline
15. Complete the analogy. Surgeon : Scalpel :: Carpenter : —
(A) nail
(B) saw
(C) chisel
(D) ladder
16. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) oboe
(B) drum
(C) triangle
(D) cymbal
17. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) parallel
(B) obtuse
(C) acute
(D) right
18. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) Asia
(B) Africa
(C) Alaska
(D) Australia
19. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) punctual
(B) prompt
(C) timely
(D) tardy
20. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) oak
(B) tulip
(C) cedar
(D) maple
21. BLADE : KNIFE :: ? : PENCIL
(A) ink
(B) eraser
(C) point
(D) wood
(E) lead
22. Select the word most similar in meaning to LUCID.
(A) stubborn
(B) obscure
(C) flashy
(D) loud
(E) clear
23. Select the word most opposite in meaning to MEAGER.
(A) tiny
(B) slight
(C) minimal
(D) abundant
(E) meaty
24. Which word does NOT belong with the others?
(A) rhombus
(B) rectangle
(C) triangle
(D) square
(E) circle
25. ORCHARD : APPLES :: APIARY : ?
(A) hives
(B) pollen
(C) flowers
(D) bees
(E) honey
26. Select the word most similar in meaning to CANDID.
(A) rehearsed
(B) frank
(C) evasive
(D) sly
(E) guarded
27. Select the word most opposite in meaning to MITIGATE.
(A) ease
(B) soften
(C) lessen
(D) moderate
(E) intensify
28. EMBRYO : FETUS :: SAPLING : ?
(A) seed
(B) sprout
(C) branch
(D) leaf
(E) tree
29. Which word does NOT belong with the others?
(A) ample
(B) paltry
(C) scant
(D) scarce
(E) sparse
30. Select the word most similar in meaning to ARDUOUS.
(A) optional
(B) easy
(C) difficult
(D) tedious
(E) quick
31. Select the word most opposite in meaning to HEEDLESS.
(A) rash
(B) oblivious
(C) inattentive
(D) cautious
(E) reckless
32. ARCHITECT : BLUEPRINT :: COMPOSER : ?
(A) melody
(B) score
(C) orchestra
(D) baton
(E) instrument
33. Select the word most similar in meaning to EPHEMERAL.
(A) transient
(B) lasting
(C) enduring
(D) permanent
(E) durable
34. Which word is LEAST like the others?
(A) dash
(B) race
(C) gallop
(D) jog
(E) sprint
35. Select the word most opposite in meaning to FORTIFY.
(A) brace
(B) assist
(C) support
(D) bolster
(E) weaken
36. QUENCH : THIRST :: SATISFY : ?
(A) greed
(B) hunger
(C) worry
(D) fatigue
(E) curiosity
37. Select the word most similar in meaning to IMPARTIAL.
(A) partisan
(B) inclined
(C) biased
(D) neutral
(E) partial
38. INSOMNIA : SLEEP :: FAMINE : ?
(A) food
(B) crops
(C) harvest
(D) drought
(E) water
39. Select the word most opposite in meaning to OVERT.
(A) obvious
(B) frank
(C) covert
(D) public
(E) honest
40. BIBLIOPHILE : BOOKS :: AUDIOPHILE : ?
(A) libraries
(B) speech
(C) headphones
(D) words
(E) sound
41. Choose the synonym for ABATE.
(A) aggravate
(B) assemble
(C) lessen
(D) partition
(E) intensify
42. Choose the antonym for METICULOUS.
(A) exacting
(B) hasty
(C) thorough
(D) careful
(E) precise
43. Choose the synonym for CANDOR.
(A) frankness
(B) caution
(C) deceit
(D) vanity
(E) silence
44. Choose the antonym for SPORADIC.
(A) occasional
(B) erratic
(C) rare
(D) irregular
(E) constant
45. Choose the synonym for AUGMENT.
(A) reduce
(B) deflect
(C) repay
(D) increase
(E) hinder
46. Choose the antonym for ALTRUISTIC.
(A) benevolent
(B) humane
(C) charitable
(D) generous
(E) selfish
47. Choose the synonym for TACIT.
(A) unspoken
(B) verbose
(C) noisy
(D) argued
(E) written
48. Choose the antonym for REPROACH.
(A) scold
(B) praise
(C) admonish
(D) blame
(E) accuse
49. Choose the synonym for EPHEMERAL.
(A) visible
(B) complex
(C) scarce
(D) fleeting
(E) lasting
50. Choose the antonym for AMBIGUOUS.
(A) doubtful
(B) uncertain
(C) clear
(D) cloudy
(E) vague
51. Seed is to germinate as spark is to:
(A) smolder
(B) kindle
(C) douse
(D) extinguish
(E) ash
52. Sculptor is to chisel as gardener is to:
(A) trellis
(B) greenhouse
(C) fertilizer
(D) spade
(E) sprinkler
53. Obscure is to clear as meager is to:
(A) abundant
(B) spare
(C) severe
(D) moderate
(E) scant
54. Marathon is to endurance as puzzle is to:
(A) courage
(B) speed
(C) patience
(D) humor
(E) accuracy
55. Hive is to bees as aviary is to:
(A) mammals
(B) reptiles
(C) fish
(D) insects
(E) birds
56. Nation is to citizen as orchestra is to:
(A) conductor
(B) baton
(C) composer
(D) musician
(E) audience
57. Choose the word that does NOT belong with the others:
(A) triangle
(B) hexagon
(C) heptagon
(D) pentagon
(E) circle
58. If all larks are birds and some larks are migratory, which statement must be true?
(A) No larks are non-migratory.
(B) No birds are non-migratory.
(C) Some birds are migratory.
(D) All birds are migratory.
(E) Some migratory animals are not birds.
59. Choose the word that does NOT belong with the others:
(A) cello
(B) clarinet
(C) viola
(D) bass
(E) violin
60. Choose the antonym for PARSIMONIOUS.
(A) lavish
(B) thrifty
(C) cautious
(D) frugal
(E) meager
Section 2: Quantitative Skills
52 questions — Time limit: 30 minutes
1. What is the next number in the sequence? 3, 6, 12, 24, ?
(A) 42
(B) 46
(C) 48
(D) 50
(E) 54
2. What is the next number in the sequence? 5, 9, 17, 33, ?
(A) 63
(B) 65
(C) 66
(D) 68
(E) 70
3. What is the next number in the sequence? 2, 3, 5, 8, 12, 17, ?
(A) 20
(B) 22
(C) 23
(D) 24
(E) 25
4. What is the next number in the sequence? 81, 27, 9, 3, ?
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
(E) 9
5. What is the next term? 1/2, 3/4, 9/8, 27/16, ?
(A) 81/32
(B) 81/64
(C) 81/48
(D) 54/32
(E) 27/24
6. What is the next number in the sequence? 7, 10, 16, 25, 37, ?
(A) 49
(B) 50
(C) 52
(D) 55
(E) 57
7. What is the next number in the sequence? 2, 4, 12, 48, 240, ?
(A) 720
(B) 1200
(C) 1440
(D) 1680
(E) 1920
8. What is the next number in the sequence? 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, ?
(A) 24
(B) 25
(C) 27
(D) 29
(E) 31
9. What is the next number in the sequence? 0.5, 0.7, 1.1, 1.9, 3.5, ?
(A) 5.1
(B) 5.9
(C) 6.3
(D) 6.7
(E) 7.1
10. What is the next number in the sequence? 1, 4, 3, 12, 9, 36, ?
(A) 18
(B) 24
(C) 27
(D) 30
(E) 36
For Questions 11–20 (Quantitative Comparison), select:
11. Column A: 3^4 Column B: 4^3
(A) Column A is greater
(B) Column B is greater
(C) The two quantities are equal
(D) Cannot be determined from the information given
12. Column A: √50 Column B: 7.1
(A) Column A is greater
(B) Column B is greater
(C) The two quantities are equal
(D) Cannot be determined from the information given
13. Column A: 40% of 150 Column B: 30% of 200
(A) Column A is greater
(B) Column B is greater
(C) The two quantities are equal
(D) Cannot be determined from the information given
14. Let x > 3. Column A: (x^2 − 9)/(x − 3) Column B: x + 3
(A) Column A is greater
(B) Column B is greater
(C) The two quantities are equal
(D) Cannot be determined from the information given
15. Column A: The mean of 6, 8, 10 Column B: The median of 3, 9, 12, 15
(A) Column A is greater
(B) Column B is greater
(C) The two quantities are equal
(D) Cannot be determined from the information given
16. Column A: Perimeter of a square with area 64 Column B: Circumference of a circle with radius 5
(A) Column A is greater
(B) Column B is greater
(C) The two quantities are equal
(D) Cannot be determined from the information given
17. Column A: The larger of two consecutive integers Column B: Their average
(A) Column A is greater
(B) Column B is greater
(C) The two quantities are equal
(D) Cannot be determined from the information given
18. Column A: 0.2 × 0.02 Column B: 0.04 × 0.01
(A) Column A is greater
(B) Column B is greater
(C) The two quantities are equal
(D) Cannot be determined from the information given
19. Column A: Number of positive factors of 36 Column B: Number of positive factors of 48
(A) Column A is greater
(B) Column B is greater
(C) The two quantities are equal
(D) Cannot be determined from the information given
20. Let −3 ≤ x ≤ 1. Column A: |x − 5| Column B: 5 − x
(A) Column A is greater
(B) Column B is greater
(C) The two quantities are equal
(D) Cannot be determined from the information given
21. What is the next number in the sequence: 3, 6, 11, 18, 27, …?
(A) 37
(B) 38
(C) 39
(D) 41
(E) 43
22. Working together, Ava can paint a room in 4 hours and Ben can paint the same room in 6 hours. How long will it take them to paint the room together?
(A) 3 hours
(B) 2 hours 36 minutes
(C) 2 hours
(D) 2 hours 12 minutes
(E) 2 hours 24 minutes
23. A store increases a price by 25% and then decreases the new price by 20%. What is the overall percent change from the original price?
(A) 10% decrease
(B) 5% increase
(C) 5% decrease
(D) 10% increase
(E) 0% change
24. Solve for x: (x/3) + (x/4) = 14
(A) 18
(B) 21
(C) 24
(D) 28
(E) 32
25. A right triangle has legs of lengths 6 and 8. What is its perimeter?
(A) 20
(B) 22
(C) 24
(D) 26
(E) 28
26. What is the least positive integer greater than 100 that is a multiple of both 6 and 9?
(A) 102
(B) 108
(C) 114
(D) 120
(E) 126
27. How many integers satisfy the inequality |2x − 5| ≤ 7?
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
(E) 10
28. A bag contains 6 red, 4 blue, and 5 green marbles. If two marbles are drawn at random without replacement, what is the probability that both are red?
(A) 1/5
(B) 1/3
(C) 3/14
(D) 2/15
(E) 1/7
29. The set {4, 7, 2, 9, x} has a median of 7. Which value of x makes this true?
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 6
(E) 7
30. Simplify: √50 + √18 − √8
(A) √2
(B) 8√2
(C) 2√2
(D) 6√2
(E) 10√2
31. If a and b are positive integers such that ab = 72 and a > b, which of the following could be the value of a − b?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 10
(E) 12
32. A car travels at 50 mph for 2 hours and then at 60 mph for 3 hours. What is the average speed for the entire trip?
(A) 57 mph
(B) 58 mph
(C) 54 mph
(D) 56 mph
(E) 55 mph
33. If 2x + y = 11 and x − y = 1, what is the value of 3x − y?
(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
(E) 11
34. The circumference of a circle is 31.4 cm. Using π = 3.14, what is the radius?
(A) 4 cm
(B) 5.5 cm
(C) 4.5 cm
(D) 6 cm
(E) 5 cm
35. In a recipe, the ratio of sugar to flour is 2:5. If 3.5 cups of sugar are used, how many cups of flour are needed?
(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 8.75
(D) 9
(E) 10
36. What is the smallest positive integer that leaves a remainder of 2 when divided by 3, by 4, and by 5?
(A) 22
(B) 26
(C) 42
(D) 62
(E) 82
37. A 12 cm by 8 cm rectangle has a square cut out of it. If the remaining area is 60 cm², what is the side length of the square?
(A) 7 cm
(B) 4 cm
(C) 5 cm
(D) 8 cm
(E) 6 cm
38. Find the next term in the sequence: 2, 9, 5, 16, 8, 23, 11, …
(A) 26
(B) 27
(C) 29
(D) 30
(E) 31
39. Three-fourths of a number is 18 more than two-fifths of the same number. What is the number?
(A) 51 3/7
(B) 50
(C) 60
(D) 54
(E) 45
40. A 20% salt solution is mixed with a 50% salt solution to make 10 liters of a 32% solution. How many liters of the 50% solution are used?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
41. A store increased the price of a jacket by 25% and later decreased the new price by 20%. What is the overall percent change from the original price?
(A) 5% increase
(B) 2% decrease
(C) 5% decrease
(D) 2% increase
(E) 0% change
42. Machine A can complete a job in 6 hours, and Machine B can complete the same job in 8 hours. Working together, how long will they take to finish the job?
(A) 3 hours 26 minutes
(B) 3 hours 20 minutes
(C) 3 hours 25 minutes
(D) 3 hours 30 minutes
(E) 3 hours 40 minutes
43. A right triangle has legs of lengths 5 and 12. What is its perimeter?
(A) 26
(B) 30
(C) 32
(D) 34
(E) 36
44. Solve for x: 3(x − 2) + 5 = 2x + 9
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 10
(E) 12
45. A recipe calls for 3 cups of flour for every 2 cups of sugar. If a baker uses 5 cups of sugar, how many cups of flour are needed to maintain the ratio?
(A) 6
(B) 6.5
(C) 7
(D) 7.5
(E) 8
46. A bag contains 5 red, 3 blue, and 2 green marbles. If one marble is drawn at random, what is the probability that it is not red?
(A) 2/5
(B) 3/5
(C) 4/5
(D) 1/5
(E) 1/2
47. If |2x − 7| = 5, what is the sum of all possible values of x?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
(E) 8
48. In an arithmetic sequence, the first term is 4 and the common difference is 3. What is the 20th term?
(A) 58
(B) 60
(C) 61
(D) 64
(E) 67
49. Simplify: (3/4) ÷ (9/16)
(A) 4/3
(B) 3/2
(C) 1/2
(D) 2/3
(E) 16/9
50. A chemist mixes a 20% saline solution with a 50% saline solution to create 20 liters of a 30% solution. How many liters of the 50% solution are used?
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 8
(D) 6
(E) 6 2/3
51. The circumference of a circle is 12π. What is the area of the circle?
(A) 36π
(B) 72π
(C) 18π
(D) 12π
(E) 24π
52. If −2 ≤ x ≤ 3 and 1 ≤ y ≤ 4, what is the greatest possible value of x + y?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 6.5
(D) 7
(E) 7.5
Section 3: Reading
62 questions — Time limit: 25 minutes
(Narrative)
1. Which statement best expresses the central theme of the passage?
(A) Fear of failure can be overcome by distraction.
(B) Success comes only from strict repetition and discipline.
(C) Hard work becomes easier when shared with family.
(D) True growth often happens during periods of quiet, patient effort.
2. What is the most likely reason Ms. Alvarez tells the story about her father building boats?
(A) To show that craft is less important than raw talent
(B) To discourage Leo from rushing his preparations
(C) To explain why she prefers woodworking to gardening
(D) To convince Leo to quit the orchestra
3. The bees and rosemary are used primarily to:
(A) create a sensory setting that mirrors Leo’s inner change
(B) foreshadow an incoming storm
(C) contrast the beauty of nature with the stress of city life
(D) symbolize routine tasks that require no thought
4. In the sentence, “Repetition is a tool, not a master,” Ms. Alvarez most likely means:
(A) Repetition should be avoided because it can lead to boredom.
(B) Repetition is more important than creativity.
(C) Repetition is useful, but it should not control every aspect of practice.
(D) Repetition is unnecessary for skilled musicians.
5. Which quotation best supports the idea that Leo begins to adopt a new approach to his audition?
(A) “On the train, he held his bow in its case and let the recorded version of his solo play in his head.”
(B) “He had not planned to come—his practice schedule for the orchestra audition had a time slot at nine, and it was already ten.”
(C) “He pressed it into the soil, feeling the resistance of roots and the wet give of decay.”
(D) “He wouldn’t tell his coach about compost or boats that wanted to be boats.”
6. The author’s tone toward Ms. Alvarez can best be described as:
(A) impatient and dismissive
(B) distant and analytical
(C) admiring and warm
(D) critical and skeptical
7. The imagery of compost that is “still working” most closely parallels:
(A) a musician performing on stage
(B) a metronome ticking during practice
(C) a conductor raising the baton before the music starts
(D) a student reading the notes silently before playing
8. Which choice best describes Leo’s conflict at the beginning of the passage?
(A) He has lost interest in both gardening and music.
(B) He is torn between strict practice and a more reflective approach.
(C) He is unsure whether to continue playing the cello at all.
(D) He wants to impress Ms. Alvarez more than his coach.
9. The phrase “the rosemary had survived the winter, stubborn as a lit wick” serves to:
(A) explain how rosemary is cultivated
(B) suggest that the garden is poorly maintained
(C) reinforce a motif of resilience and persistence
(D) illustrate that Leo prefers plants to people
10. Which title would best fit this passage?
(A) The Angry Bees of Spring
(B) Scales and Soil
(C) The Last Audition
(D) A Day Without Practice
(Informational)
11. Which statement best captures the central idea of the passage?
(A) Beach nourishment should be avoided because it is ineffective.
(B) Seawalls are the only reliable defense against coastal storms.
(C) Rising seas have little impact on modern shorelines.
(D) Dunes function as dynamic, living infrastructure that can protect coasts when managed flexibly.
12. In the context of the first paragraph, the term “sediment budgets” most nearly means:
(A) the calculation of sand volume available to shape beaches and dunes
(B) government financial plans for coastal towns
(C) the amount of money spent on beach tourism
(D) the costs associated with building seawalls
13. What is the primary criticism of seawalls and revetments discussed in the passage?
(A) They are illegal in many coastal communities.
(B) They can reflect wave energy and accelerate beach erosion in front of them.
(C) They destroy plant life that could stabilize dunes.
(D) They are too expensive to construct.
14. According to the passage, which factor is NOT identified as disrupting the natural delivery of sand to beaches?
(A) Rising sea levels
(B) Harbor jetties
(C) Bulkheads and buildings
(D) Longshore drift
15. The author’s use of “savings account” and “shield” in paragraph one primarily serves to:
(A) simplify a complex process with familiar metaphors
(B) argue for ending coastal development entirely
(C) criticize people who live near the beach
(D) exaggerate the importance of dunes
16. Which statement would the author most likely agree with?
(A) The best shoreline management eliminates all movement of sand.
(B) A dune that looks unchanged after a major storm has failed its purpose.
(C) Combining nature-based solutions with strategic redesign can improve resilience.
(D) Elevating buildings is a wasteful measure compared to nourishment.
17. In stating that “The choice is not between nature and engineering. It is between brittle defenses and flexible ones,” the author suggests that:
(A) engineering and nature-based strategies are incompatible
(B) flexible defenses are weaker than traditional structures
(C) only natural dunes should be used for protection
(D) resilient management blends design with natural processes
18. The phrase “No strategy exists in a vacuum” most nearly means:
(A) Shoreline management decisions depend on local conditions and constraints.
(B) Coastal erosion is unpredictable and cannot be influenced.
(C) All solutions require advanced technology.
(D) Every coastal town must build seawalls.
19. Which detail best supports the idea that dune systems must be allowed to change over time?
(A) “Critics note that nourishment is costly and temporary.”
(B) “The engineering is subtle; the goal is not to freeze the shoreline but to allow it to move within a safer range.”
(C) “Seawalls and revetments keep waves from chewing into backshore property.”
(D) “A town bordered by a tidal inlet will face losses due to ebb-tide shoals shifting.”
20. Which of the following is the best summary of the passage?
(A) Shoreline management is impossible due to climate change.
(B) Dunes are attractive landscape features that add tourism dollars to beaches.
(C) Flexible, dune-centered strategies—supported by nourishment and design changes—often provide more resilient coastal protection than rigid, hard structures, especially under rising seas.
(D) Coastal towns should abandon dunes and rely on seawalls because they are permanent.
21. Which statement best expresses the central idea of the passage?
(A) Rural forests are better suited than city trees to mitigate climate impacts.
(B) Cities should plant as many trees as possible to meet ambitious numerical targets.
(C) Strategic planting and maintenance of diverse urban trees provide measurable public benefits, especially in hotter, underserved areas.
(D) Urban trees are attractive but too costly to maintain.
22. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT cited as a benefit of urban trees?
(A) Improved respiratory health
(B) Increased automobile traffic
(C) Stormwater absorption
(D) Reduced energy costs
23. The comparison between Riverton and Glen Park primarily serves to
(A) argue that older neighborhoods should receive fewer resources.
(B) demonstrate that canopy cover is unrelated to temperature differences.
(C) show that canopy percentages are determined by chance.
(D) illustrate how historical investment decisions affect present-day heat exposure.
24. In the sentence, “The least glamorous budget lines—watering, staking, pruning, and replacing damaged grates—are the linchpin of long-term canopy growth,” the word “linchpin” most nearly means
(A) essential element.
(B) distraction.
(C) compromise.
(D) luxury.
25. Which factor is presented as a common cause of newly planted trees failing to thrive in high-traffic corridors?
(A) Overabundance of species diversity
(B) Lack of water during the first two summers
(C) Excessive shade from tall buildings
(D) Low pedestrian activity
26. The author’s tone toward rapid planting programs (e.g., “50,000 trees by 2030”) is best described as
(A) cautiously critical, emphasizing that planting without maintenance is insufficient.
(B) dismissive, suggesting they should be abandoned.
(C) celebratory, endorsing large-scale planting as the sole solution.
(D) neutral, neither supporting nor opposing them.
27. The description of the “TreeSprint” pilot suggests that
(A) school attendance is unrelated to neighborhood temperature.
(B) maintenance funding is less important than planting location.
(C) species uniformity is preferable near transit routes.
(D) targeted planting plus funded maintenance can improve outcomes.
28. How does the author structure the passage to build the argument?
(A) By listing tree species and comparing their growth rates
(B) By contrasting rural and urban forestry practices through historical documents
(C) By defining the problem, explaining contributing factors, and presenting a targeted solution with evidence
(D) By beginning with a personal anecdote and concluding with scientific data
29. Which detail best reveals Nonno’s character?
(A) He tells Mrs. Tran how to run the ladder.
(B) He insists his grandchild always win.
(C) He argues loudly about tournament pairings.
(D) He taps the chess clock gently and sets up the pieces with care.
30. The narrator most likely avoided tournaments in the past because
(A) fear of losing made the narrator hesitant.
(B) Nonno discouraged competitive play.
(C) the community center prohibited younger players.
(D) the narrator disliked chess.
31. In the sentence, “I felt the room hold its breath for a second,” the phrase most nearly suggests that the narrator
(A) found the room unusually quiet because it was empty.
(B) sensed a moment of tension or anticipation.
(C) was physically unable to breathe.
(D) wanted to leave immediately.
32. Mrs. Tran is portrayed primarily as
(A) disorganized and inattentive to results.
(B) stern and unforgiving with new players.
(C) calm and supportive, maintaining gentle order.
(D) competitive and eager to demonstrate her own skill.
33. What lesson does the narrator learn by the end of the passage?
(A) Careful reflection on both mistakes and strong moves leads to growth.
(B) Aggressive play is always better than cautious play.
(C) Playing only familiar openings ensures victory.
(D) Tournament results determine one’s worth.
34. Which quotation best supports the answer to Question 145?
(A) “He played the Sicilian Defense as if each move were a door being locked.”
(B) “Nonno’s eyebrow lifted—only barely—but he said nothing.”
(C) “I lost in thirty-two moves. It wasn’t even close.”
(D) “‘Tell me three moves you would take back,’ he said… ‘Now tell me one you would keep.’”
35. What is the author’s primary purpose in the passage?
(A) To describe the history of school scheduling in the United States
(B) To argue that schools should adopt later start times for adolescents
(C) To present a neutral overview of adolescent sleep research
(D) To explain why early start times are popular with families
36. Which piece of evidence best supports the author’s argument?
(A) “None of these fixes are perfect, but they are manageable.”
(B) “A school day that begins at 7:30 a.m. looks efficient on paper.”
(C) “During puberty, circadian rhythms shift later.”
(D) “Families can plan around consistent hours.”
37. How does the third paragraph contribute to the author’s argument?
(A) It shifts the topic from schools to workplace policies.
(B) It dismisses concerns about logistics as unimportant.
(C) It introduces unrelated information to distract from the main point.
(D) It acknowledges counterarguments and presents practical solutions, strengthening the case.
38. The tone of the passage is best described as
(A) reasoned and solutions-oriented.
(B) sarcastic and mocking of current policies.
(C) indifferent and purely informational.
(D) resigned and pessimistic about change.
39. Which of the following, if added, would most strengthen the author’s position?
(A) An anecdote about one student who dislikes early mornings
(B) A table comparing pre- and post-change attendance rates across several districts
(C) A description of morning routines in other countries
(D) A quotation from a bus driver about route lengths
40. In the sentence, “A later bell is not a panacea,” the word “panacea” most nearly means
(A) a minor inconvenience.
(B) an untested theory.
(C) a cure-all solution.
(D) a temporary delay.
41. The author’s overall attitude toward urban beekeeping is best described as
(A) skeptical that urban nectar sources are sufficient to sustain hives
(B) enthusiastic and convinced it outperforms rural beekeeping in all respects
(C) dismissive and wary of hobbyists’ motives
(D) cautiously optimistic about its potential with proper oversight
42. Which inference is most supported by the passage regarding why some city hives “survive at rates that surprise”?
(A) City regulations ensure optimal hive spacing and disease control.
(B) Urban nectar sources are staggered and diverse, reducing feast-or-famine cycles.
(C) City beekeepers use more advanced equipment than rural beekeepers.
(D) Urban bees face fewer disease threats than rural bees.
43. The phrase “Cities do not absolve us of biology; they compress it” most nearly suggests that
(A) city beekeeping requires less knowledge of biology than rural beekeeping
(B) biological challenges become simpler to manage in cities
(C) urban density can intensify ecological interactions and risks
(D) urban environments eliminate natural ecological processes
44. The author’s use of the term “borrowed exuberance” primarily serves to
(A) emphasize that urban plantings provide vitality that is externally supplied and curated
(B) argue that ornamentals should replace native plantings citywide
(C) criticize landscapers for prioritizing aesthetics over pollinator health
(D) imply that ornamentals are unreliable nectar sources
45. Which statement would the author most likely endorse?
(A) With training and coordination, urban beekeeping can be viable but not perfect.
(B) City hives thrive without any need for regulation or monitoring.
(C) Rural beekeeping is universally inferior to urban beekeeping.
(D) Urban beekeeping should be discouraged because disease risks outweigh benefits.
46. The author’s central concern about the telephone is that it will
(A) replace written correspondence with inferior conversation
(B) fail to reduce the sense of distance between people
(C) be too expensive for most households to afford
(D) undermine meaningful social customs by fostering interruption
47. The author’s tone is best characterized as
(A) resigned and nostalgic
(B) cautiously skeptical with wry observation
(C) alarmist and moralizing
(D) celebratory and forward-looking
48. The author mentions writing by electric light primarily to
(A) demonstrate that some technologies are harmless
(B) illustrate that he rejects all modern conveniences
(C) acknowledge benefits of innovation while noting trade-offs
(D) admit hypocrisy about adopting new technology
49. The metaphor of a bell that “does not ask whether it intrudes; it insists” supports which inference?
(A) Bells will become obsolete as the telephone grows in popularity.
(B) The telephone will demand immediate attention, altering social boundaries.
(C) The telephone will make neighbors less likely to talk at all.
(D) People will welcome the telephone’s calls as friendly visits.
50. The author’s stance toward dam removal can best be described as
(A) broadly supportive but contingent on context and trade-offs
(B) unconditionally supportive
(C) neutral and uninterested
(D) opposed due to economic costs
51. The phrase “Rivers remember, but the memories are messy” most nearly conveys that
(A) ecological systems rebound predictably after intervention
(B) rivers cannot recover after being dammed
(C) rivers quickly forget human alterations
(D) the legacy of dams persists in complex ways even after removal
52. The author includes the example of salmon returning “as if rehearsing an old song” to emphasize
(A) that dam removal guarantees species recovery
(B) the aesthetic appeal of natural rivers over engineered ones
(C) the speed and familiarity of certain ecological responses
(D) that fish behavior is poorly understood
53. Which policy approach does the author most likely endorse?
(A) Prioritize removal of obsolete dams and coordinate mitigation to limit harm.
(B) Remove all dams immediately to restore ecosystems.
(C) Keep all existing dams due to their benefits.
(D) Transfer all dam management decisions to private companies.
54. Which inference about Mara’s character is most supported by the passage?
(A) She is reckless and ignores all rules out of stubbornness.
(B) She is pragmatic and deeply committed to safeguarding the library’s history.
(C) She is indifferent to risk and motivated by personal recognition.
(D) She is overwhelmed and unable to make decisions under pressure.
55. The line “‘They’re insured,’ he said. ‘So am I,’ she replied” primarily reveals that Mara
(A) plans to claim overtime for her extra work
(B) believes insurance will cover all damages
(C) views her responsibility as extending beyond financial considerations
(D) thinks the custodian is trying to abandon his duties
56. The tone in the final sentences (“She switched off the lights… a mop and a notebook”) is best described as
(A) anxious and panicked
(B) sarcastic and dismissive
(C) fatalistic and defeated
(D) resolute and clear-eyed
57. The sandbags and tarps function symbolically in the passage as
(A) pragmatic acts that stand in for hope and stewardship under threat
(B) evidence that the library is outdated and poorly maintained
(C) tokens of a community’s neglect of public resources
(D) futile gestures that cannot alter the storm’s outcome
58. The authors of both passages would most likely agree that
(A) all homework should be eliminated to reduce stress
(B) student practice is valuable when thoughtfully structured
(C) teachers cannot influence how effective homework is
(D) homework is the primary cause of student fatigue
59. The principal point of disagreement between the passages is that Passage A emphasizes
(A) extending the school day, whereas Passage B proposes shorter days
(B) the importance of parental involvement, whereas Passage B discourages it
(C) eliminating homework entirely, whereas Passage B defends homework
(D) the role of task design, whereas Passage B emphasizes periodic rest from homework
60. Which choice best characterizes the difference in tone between the two passages?
(A) Passage A is skeptical and ironic; Passage B is celebratory and boastful.
(B) Passage A is defensive and uncertain; Passage B is detached and technical.
(C) Passage A is analytical and prescriptive; Passage B is empathetic and reflective.
(D) Passage A is nostalgic; Passage B is confrontational.
61. In Passage A, the author points out that banning homework could still leave students exhausted by busywork done in class in order to show that
(A) students would rather complete worksheets at home than at school
(B) the real problem lies in how tasks are designed, not where they are completed
(C) abolishing homework would immediately improve students' thinking
(D) classroom teachers assign far more work than homework ever required
62. In Passage B, the author notes that students' work "improves afterward" following no-homework nights primarily to suggest that
(A) rest supports learning rather than interfering with it
(B) soccer tournaments should be rescheduled to weekend afternoons
(C) seventh graders perform best when practice is eliminated entirely
(D) students finish assignments faster when homework is optional
Section 4: Mathematics
64 questions — Time limit: 45 minutes
1. Evaluate: 3^2 − 4(5 − 7) + 6 ÷ 3
(A) −1
(B) 3
(C) 17
(D) 19
(E) 21
2. Compute: 3/4 + 5/6 − 1/3
(A) 3/2
(B) 23/12
(C) 5/4
(D) 11/12
(E) 7/6
3. A price increases from $80 to $100. What is the percent increase?
(A) 15%
(B) 18.75%
(C) 20%
(D) 25%
(E) 30%
4. Solve: 5(x − 2) + 3 = 2x + 9
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 13/3
(D) 7/2
(E) 16/3
5. If 3 pens cost $4.50, how much do 10 pens cost at the same rate?
(A) $12.00
(B) $13.50
(C) $14.00
(D) $15.00
(E) $16.50
6. Solve: |2x − 5| = 9
(A) x = 7 or x = −2
(B) x = 7 only
(C) x = −7 or x = 2
(D) x = −2 only
(E) x = 0 or x = 7
7. Simplify: (2^3)(2^4) ÷ 2^5
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 16
(E) 32
8. The average of five numbers is 12. If the sum of four of them is 54, what is the fifth number?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
(E) 8
9. A bag contains 5 red, 3 blue, and 2 green marbles. If one marble is selected at random, what is the probability it is not blue?
(A) 1/2
(B) 7/10
(C) 2/5
(D) 1/5
(E) 3/10
10. Solve the inequality: 7 − 2x ≥ 1
(A) x ≤ 3
(B) x < 3
(C) x = 3
(D) x ≥ 3
(E) x > 3
11. If a = −2 and b = 3, evaluate 2a^2 − ab + b.
(A) −1
(B) 5
(C) 11
(D) 17
(E) 23
12. Solve for x: 8/x = 12/18
(A) 10
(B) 11
(C) 12
(D) 13
(E) 14
13. A babysitter charges a $10 flat fee plus $8 per hour. If the total bill is $58, how many hours did the babysitter work?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
(E) 8
14. Simplify: √(81/16)
(A) 81/16
(B) 2
(C) 4/9
(D) 3/2
(E) 9/4
15. Compute: 2 1/3 × 1 1/2
(A) 3 1/2
(B) 2 2/3
(C) 4
(D) 3 2/3
(E) 2 1/3
16. In the arithmetic sequence 5, 9, 13, … what is the 10th term?
(A) 37
(B) 39
(C) 41
(D) 43
(E) 45
17. Solve the system: x + y = 10 x − y = 2
(A) (5, 5)
(B) (6, 4)
(C) (4, 6)
(D) (7, 3)
(E) (8, 2)
18. Expand: (x + 3)(x − 5)
(A) x^2 − 8x + 15
(B) x^2 + 8x − 15
(C) x^2 + 2x − 15
(D) x^2 − 2x + 15
(E) x^2 − 2x − 15
19. An item costs $50 and is discounted by 20%. Sales tax of 8% is applied to the discounted price. What is the final price?
(A) $40.00
(B) $41.60
(C) $43.20
(D) $44.00
(E) $46.00
20. A car travels 180 miles in 3 hours 45 minutes. What is the average speed in miles per hour?
(A) 42
(B) 45
(C) 48
(D) 50
(E) 54
21. Simplify: (2^3 · 2^−5) ÷ 2^−2
(A) 4
(B) 1
(C) 1/2
(D) 2
(E) 1/8
22. Solve for x: (3/4)x − 5 = (1/2)x + 1
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 12
(D) 24
(E) 28
23. Solve the inequality: 5 − 2(3x − 4) ≥ 11
(A) x < 1/3
(B) x > 1/3
(C) x ≥ −1/3
(D) x ≥ 1/3
(E) x ≤ 1/3
24. A map scale is 1:50,000. If two towns are 6.5 cm apart on the map, what is their actual distance in kilometers?
(A) 3.25 km
(B) 0.325 km
(C) 325 km
(D) 32.5 km
(E) 0.065 km
25. A jacket priced at $80 is discounted 25%. After the discount, an 8% sales tax is applied. What is the final price?
(A) $60.00
(B) $62.40
(C) $64.00
(D) $64.80
(E) $69.12
26. An amount of $1,200 earns 5% simple interest for 18 months. What is the total amount at the end?
(A) $1,180
(B) $1,260
(C) $1,290
(D) $1,300
(E) $1,350
27. Solve the system: 2x + y = 9 and x − y = 3. What is (x, y)?
(A) (4, 1)
(B) (3, 6)
(C) (2, 5)
(D) (5, 2)
(E) (6, 3)
28. In triangle ABC, the exterior angle at C measures 120°, and m∠A = 45°. What is m∠B?
(A) 60°
(B) 65°
(C) 80°
(D) 45°
(E) 75°
29. A rectangle has length 15 units and width 8 units. What is the length of the diagonal?
(A) 13
(B) 15
(C) 16
(D) 17
(E) 19
30. What is the area of a circle with radius 7 cm?
(A) 28π cm^2
(B) 49π cm^2
(C) 14π cm^2
(D) 154 cm^2
(E) 98π cm^2
31. Find the volume of a cylinder with radius 4 units and height 10 units.
(A) 160π
(B) 120π
(C) 80π
(D) 200π
(E) 40π
32. A bag contains 4 red, 5 blue, and 3 green marbles. If two marbles are drawn without replacement, what is the probability of drawing a red then a blue?
(A) 5/36
(B) 1/4
(C) 1/6
(D) 2/11
(E) 5/33
33. The average (mean) of 6, 8, 9, 12, and x is 10. What is x?
(A) 13
(B) 14
(C) 15
(D) 16
(E) 18
34. In an arithmetic sequence, the first term is 7 and the common difference is −3. What is the 10th term?
(A) −22
(B) −21
(C) −20
(D) −19
(E) −17
35. If f(x) = 2x^2 − x, what is f(−3)?
(A) −21
(B) −15
(C) 15
(D) 18
(E) 21
36. Solve: |2x − 5| < 7
(A) −6 ≤ x ≤ 1
(B) −1 < x < 6
(C) −6 < x < 1
(D) x < −1 or x > 6
(E) x ≤ −1 or x ≥ 6
37. Point P(−2, 5) is reflected across the x-axis and then translated 3 units right and 4 units down. What are the new coordinates?
(A) (1, −9)
(B) (−5, −1)
(C) (1, −1)
(D) (−1, −9)
(E) (−5, 9)
38. Printer A prints 30 pages per minute and Printer B prints 20 pages per minute. Working together, how long will they take to print 600 pages?
(A) 20 minutes
(B) 12 minutes
(C) 10 minutes
(D) 18 minutes
(E) 15 minutes
39. Simplify: √(72x^2)
(A) 3x√8
(B) 12x√2
(C) 6√(2x)
(D) 6x√2
(E) 6√2x
40. How many liters of a 50% saline solution must be mixed with a 20% saline solution to make 10 liters of a 32% solution?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
41. A triangle has side lengths 7, 24, and 25. What is the area of the triangle?
(A) 70
(B) 72
(C) 84
(D) 96
(E) 168
42. A square has a perimeter of 48 cm. What is the area of the circle inscribed in the square?
(A) 36π
(B) 144π
(C) 24π
(D) 48π
(E) 72π
43. Two parallel lines are cut by a transversal. One interior angle measures 65°. What is the measure of the adjacent interior angle on the same side of the transversal?
(A) 75°
(B) 115°
(C) 95°
(D) 65°
(E) 55°
44. Two similar triangles have a side-length ratio (smaller to larger) of 3:5. If the area of the smaller triangle is 54 cm², what is the area of the larger triangle?
(A) 90
(B) 125
(C) 150
(D) 225
(E) 250
45. A rectangle has length 18 cm and diagonal 30 cm. What is its width?
(A) 12
(B) 16
(C) 18
(D) 20
(E) 24
46. In a circle of radius 9 cm, what is the length of an arc subtended by a central angle of 60°?
(A) 3π
(B) 9π
(C) 6π
(D) 12π
(E) 2π
47. A right circular cylinder has radius 4 cm and height 15 cm. What is its total surface area?
(A) 136π
(B) 120π
(C) 192π
(D) 168π
(E) 152π
48. An isosceles triangle has equal sides of 13 cm and a base of 20 cm. What is its area?
(A) 130
(B) 10√69
(C) 12√69
(D) 20√69
(E) 100
49. A cube has surface area 216 cm². What is its volume (in cm³)?
(A) 36
(B) 72
(C) 216
(D) 324
(E) 1296
50. What is the area of a regular hexagon with side length 8 cm?
(A) 128√3
(B) 64√3
(C) 72√3
(D) 96√3
(E) 192√3
51. What is the distance between points A(−3, 4) and B(5, −8)?
(A) 2√13
(B) 3√13
(C) 13
(D) 4√13
(E) 5√13
52. In a right triangle, the legs differ by 4 units and the hypotenuse is 20. What is the perimeter of the triangle?
(A) 40
(B) 44
(C) 48
(D) 52
(E) 56
53. A trapezoid has bases 14 cm and 26 cm and a height of 9 cm. What is its area?
(A) 90
(B) 162
(C) 180
(D) 198
(E) 234
54. A circle has circumference 31.4 cm. Using π ≈ 3.14, what is the radius?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
(E) 10
55. A 12 m by 15 m rectangular lot contains a square fountain. If the remaining area is 132 m², what is the side length of the square fountain?
(A) 4
(B) 4√3
(C) 2√15
(D) 8
(E) 6
56. Two similar solids have a linear scale factor (small to large) of 2:3. If the smaller solid has volume 64 cm³, what is the volume of the larger solid?
(A) 96
(B) 108
(C) 162
(D) 216
(E) 324
57. The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 2:3:4. What is the measure of the largest angle?
(A) 80°
(B) 120°
(C) 100°
(D) 40°
(E) 60°
58. A dart randomly lands on a circular board of radius 10 inches. An inner circle of radius 5 inches is centered at the same point. What is the probability the dart lands inside the inner circle?
(A) 1/2
(B) 1/8
(C) 1/5
(D) 2/5
(E) 1/4
59. A rectangular prism has dimensions 8 cm by 10 cm by h cm. Its space diagonal is 18 cm. What is h?
(A) 4√10
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 14
(E) 16
60. The vertices of triangle ABC are A(0, 0), B(4, 0), and C(4, 3). What is the perimeter of triangle ABC?
(A) 10
(B) 11
(C) 12
(D) 13
(E) 14
61. A coach must choose 3 players from a group of 7 to attend a tournament. How many different groups of 3 players are possible?
(A) 21
(B) 28
(C) 35
(D) 42
(E) 210
62. A line passes through the points (2, 5) and (6, 13). At what y-coordinate does the line cross the y-axis?
(A) −1
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 3
(E) 5
63. After a 15% discount, a backpack costs $68. What was its original price?
(A) $74.80
(B) $78.20
(C) $79.90
(D) $80.00
(E) $83.00
64. A clock shows exactly 4:00. What is the measure of the smaller angle between the hour hand and the minute hand?
(A) 130°
(B) 100°
(C) 110°
(D) 150°
(E) 120°
Section 5: Language
60 questions — Time limit: 25 minutes
1. Choose the sentence that is punctuated correctly.
(A) My sister Maya is, a talented pianist.
(B) My sister Maya, is a talented pianist.
(C) My sister, Maya is a talented pianist.
(D) My sister, Maya, is a talented pianist.
2. Choose the best revision that corrects the comma splice. Original: The storm ended, the sun appeared.
(A) The storm ended, but the sun appeared.
(B) The storm ended; the sun appeared.
(C) The storm ended: the sun appeared.
(D) The storm ended and, the sun appeared.
3. Choose the correct pronoun to complete the sentence. No one is more excited than .
(A) she
(B) herself
(C) she is
(D) her
4. Choose the sentence with correct parallel structure.
(A) The club values honesty, commitment, and to work hard.
(B) The club values to be honest, being committed, and hard work.
(C) The club values honesty, commitment, and hard work.
(D) The club values being honest, commitment, and hard work.
5. Choose the sentence that maintains correct subject–verb agreement.
(A) One of the books that are on the table are missing.
(B) One of the books that are on the table is missing.
(C) One of the books that is on the table are missing.
(D) One of the books that is on the table is missing.
6. Choose the correctly punctuated phrase.
(A) the teachers’ lounge
(B) the teachers’s lounge
(C) the teacher’s lounge
(D) the teachers lounge
7. Choose the sentence with correct comma usage.
(A) After finishing, the lab report we left the library.
(B) After finishing the lab report we left the library.
(C) After finishing the lab report, we left the library.
(D) After finishing the lab report we, left the library.
8. Choose the correct word to complete the sentence. The robot lost balance on the uneven ramp.
(A) it’s
(B) its’
(C) it is
(D) its
9. Choose the sentence that uses the colon correctly.
(A) Please bring the following items are: pencils, paper, and a calculator.
(B) Please bring the following items, pencils, paper, and a calculator:
(C) Please bring: pencils, paper, and a calculator.
(D) Please bring the following: pencils, paper, and a calculator.
10. Choose the best revision to correct the dangling modifier. Original: Walking down the street, the rain soaked her.
(A) Walking down the street, she was soaked by the rain.
(B) Walking down the street, it soaked her.
(C) Walking down the street, the rain was soaking her.
(D) Walking down the street; the rain soaked her.
11. Choose the sentence with correct hyphenation.
(A) The museum featured a well, known artist.
(B) The museum featured a well-known artist.
(C) The museum featured a well-known-artist.
(D) The museum featured a well known artist.
12. Choose the best way to correct the run-on sentence. Original: The museum opens at nine it closes at five.
(A) The museum opens at nine, it closes at five.
(B) The museum opens at nine— and it closes at five.
(C) The museum opens at nine; it closes at five.
(D) The museum opens at nine: it closes at five.
13. Choose the best revision to eliminate the ambiguous pronoun. Original: When Sam texted Alex, he confirmed the time.
(A) When Sam texted Alex, Sam confirmed the time.
(B) Texting Alex, the time was confirmed.
(C) When Sam texted Alex, he confirmed the time.
(D) Sam confirmed the time when he texted Alex.
14. Choose the correct form to complete the sentence. The soup smells after simmering all day.
(A) most wonderful
(B) wonderfully
(C) more wonderfully
(D) wonderful
15. Choose the sentence that uses commas correctly.
(A) The students, who studied early, scored highest.
(B) The students who studied early scored highest.
(C) The students, who studied early scored highest.
(D) The students who studied early, scored highest.
16. Choose the sentence with consistent verb tense.
(A) She was finishing the project when the power goes out.
(B) She finishes the project when the power went out.
(C) She was finishing the project when the power went out.
(D) She finished the project when the power goes out.
17. Choose the sentence that uses the correct pronoun case.
(A) Between you and me, the plan will work.
(B) Between you and I, the plan will work.
(C) Between you and myself, the plan will work.
(D) Between I and you, the plan will work.
18. Choose the sentence with correct comma use between coordinate adjectives.
(A) It was a bright ambitious student who asked the question.
(B) It was a bright ambitious, student who asked the question.
(C) It was a bright, ambitious student who asked the question.
(D) It was a bright and, ambitious student who asked the question.
19. Choose the sentence with correct punctuation.
(A) We practiced hard; but we still lost.
(B) We practiced hard however we still lost.
(C) We practiced hard: but we still lost.
(D) We practiced hard, but we still lost.
20. Choose the sentence that avoids a double negative.
(A) I can’t hardly wait for the results.
(B) I can hardly wait for the results.
(C) I don’t want nothing to change.
(D) I can’t scarcely believe it.
21. Choose the sentence with correct punctuation.
(A) After finishing the lab report we, reviewed the data again.
(B) After finishing the lab report; we reviewed the data again.
(C) After finishing the lab report we reviewed, the data again.
(D) After finishing the lab report, we reviewed the data again.
22. Choose the sentence with correct subject–verb agreement.
(A) The team of volunteers were ready to begin.
(B) The team of volunteers was ready to begin.
(C) The team of volunteers have been ready to begin.
(D) The team of volunteers are ready to begin.
23. Choose the best completion. Each of the swimmers forgot cap in the locker room.
(A) her
(B) his
(C) his or her
(D) their
24. Choose the sentence that correctly places the modifier.
(A) Covered in frosting, the cake was admired by the children.
(B) Covered in frosting, the children admired the cake.
(C) The children admired the cake, covered in frosting, loudly.
(D) The cake was admired by the children covered in frosting.
25. Choose the sentence with correct parallel structure.
(A) The club aims to recruit members, and to plan events, increasing attendance.
(B) The club aims to recruit members, planning events, and increasing attendance.
(C) The club aims to recruit members, to plan events, and increase attendance.
(D) The club aims to recruit members, to plan events, and to increase attendance.
26. Correct the comma splice without changing the sentence structure or adding words. Original: The lecture ended early, we went for coffee.
(A) The lecture ended early. We went for coffee.
(B) The lecture ended early, and we went for coffee.
(C) The lecture ended early; we went for coffee.
(D) Because the lecture ended early, we went for coffee.
27. Choose the correctly punctuated sentence.
(A) The teachers' lounge was renovated this summer.
(B) The teacher's lounge was renovated this summer.
(C) The teacherses' lounge was renovated this summer.
(D) The teachers lounge was renovated this summer.
28. Choose the correctly written phrase.
(A) an well-known artist
(B) a well-known artist
(C) a well known-artist
(D) a well known artist
29. Choose the correct word. The new policy had a positive on attendance.
(A) effects
(B) affect
(C) affects
(D) effect
30. Choose the correct idiom. This solution is different the one we tried yesterday.
(A) than
(B) to
(C) from
(D) with
31. Choose the correct word. There are students in the lab this week.
(A) fewer
(B) less
(C) lesser
(D) fewest
32. Choose the best revision to eliminate the dangling modifier.
(A) Walking down the hall, the lights flickered.
(B) As I walked down the hall, the lights flickered.
(C) The lights flickered, walking down the hall.
(D) Walking down the hall, there were flickering lights.
33. Given that the speaker has only one brother, choose the correctly punctuated sentence.
(A) My brother who lives in Seattle, is visiting for the weekend.
(B) My brother, who lives in Seattle, is visiting for the weekend.
(C) My brother, who lives in Seattle is visiting for the weekend.
(D) My brother who lives in Seattle is visiting for the weekend.
34. Choose the correctly punctuated sentence introducing a list.
(A) She brought three items to the meeting, a notebook: a pen, and a calculator.
(B) She brought three items to the meeting; a notebook, a pen, and a calculator.
(C) She brought three items to the meeting: a notebook, a pen, and a calculator.
(D) She brought three items to the meeting a notebook, a pen, and a calculator.
35. Choose the correctly capitalized sentence.
(A) professor Lee assigned history 101 and Chemistry for next term.
(B) Professor lee assigned History 101 and chemistry for next term.
(C) Professor Lee assigned history 101 and Chemistry for next term.
(D) Professor Lee assigned History 101 and chemistry for next term.
36. Choose the sentence with consistent verb tense.
(A) During the experiment, Jenna recorded the temperatures and noted the changes.
(B) During the experiment, Jenna records the temperatures and notes the changes.
(C) During the experiment, Jenna records the temperatures and noted the changes.
(D) During the experiment, Jenna had recorded the temperatures and noted the changes.
37. Choose the correct form. He felt about the error.
(A) worse
(B) bad
(C) badlyly
(D) badly
38. Choose the sentence with correct pronoun case.
(A) Between you and me, the plan needs work.
(B) Between me and you, the plan needs work.
(C) Between I and you, the plan needs work.
(D) Between you and I, the plan needs work.
39. Choose the correct verb form. Neither of the answers correct.
(A) are
(B) were
(C) have been
(D) is
40. Choose the most concise, clear revision. In order to be able to arrive on time, we need to leave at 7 a.m.
(A) To be able to arrive on time, we need to leave at 7 a.m.
(B) We need to leave at 7 a.m. in order to be able to arrive on time.
(C) To arrive on time, we need to leave at 7 a.m.
(D) We should plan, in order to be able to arrive on time, to leave at 7 a.m.
41. Choose the correctly spelled word.
(A) acommodate
(B) accommodate
(C) accomodate
(D) accomadate
42. Choose the correctly spelled word.
(A) privelege
(B) privilage
(C) privilege
(D) privalige
43. Choose the correctly spelled word.
(A) recccommend
(B) reccommend
(C) recomend
(D) recommend
44. Choose the correctly spelled word.
(A) separate
(B) seperate
(C) separete
(D) seperete
45. Choose the correctly spelled word.
(A) occurrence
(B) occurance
(C) ocurrrence
(D) occurence
46. Choose the correctly spelled word.
(A) neccesary
(B) necesary
(C) neccessary
(D) necessary
47. Choose the correctly spelled word.
(A) perserverance
(B) perseverance
(C) perserverence
(D) perseverence
48. Choose the correctly spelled word.
(A) mischievious
(B) mischevious
(C) mischievous
(D) mischeivous
49. Choose the correctly spelled word.
(A) maintainance
(B) maintenence
(C) maintenance
(D) maintanance
50. Choose the correctly spelled word.
(A) liasan
(B) liasion
(C) liason
(D) liaison
51. Choose the sentence that is free of errors.
(A) Maya ran down the hall, and the book slipped from her hands.
(B) Running down the hall, the book slipped from Maya’s hands.
(C) Maya running down the hall, the book slipped from her hands.
(D) Maya ran down the hall the book slipped from her hands.
52. Choose the best revision to correct the sentence: The museum is closed on Mondays, we will visit on Tuesday.
(A) The museum is closed on Mondays therefore we will visit on Tuesday.
(B) The museum is closed on Mondays; we will visit on Tuesday.
(C) The museum is closed on Mondays however we will visit on Tuesday.
(D) The museum is closed on Mondays, we will visit on Tuesday.
53. Choose the sentence with correct subject-verb agreement.
(A) Neither the coach nor the players is available after the game.
(B) The list of items are on the desk.
(C) There is many reasons to volunteer.
(D) The data support the conclusion.
54. Choose the best way to combine the sentences: The experiment failed the first time. It succeeded after we recalibrated the sensor.
(A) The experiment failed the first time but succeeded after we recalibrated the sensor.
(B) Failing the first time, we recalibrated the sensor, and the experiment succeeded.
(C) After we recalibrated the sensor, the experiment failed the first time then succeeded.
(D) The experiment failed the first time, it succeeded after we recalibrated the sensor.
55. Choose the sentence that uses parallel structure correctly.
(A) She likes to hike, swimming, and to bike.
(B) She likes hiking, to swim, and biking.
(C) She likes hiking, swimming, and biking.
(D) She likes hiking, swimming, and to ride a bike.
56. Choose the sentence with correct pronoun case.
(A) Our teacher gave Maya and I an extension.
(B) The award was given to Carlos and me.
(C) Between you and I, the plan needs work.
(D) Him and I studied late.
57. Choose the sentence that avoids a misplaced modifier.
(A) The children, covered in icing, devoured the cupcakes.
(B) The children devoured the cupcakes, which were covered in icing.
(C) The children devoured the cupcakes covered in icing.
(D) Covered in icing, the children devoured the cupcakes.
58. Choose the correctly punctuated sentence.
(A) After reviewing the results; the committee announced its decision.
(B) After reviewing the results the committee announced its decision.
(C) After reviewing the results: the committee announced its decision.
(D) After reviewing the results, the committee announced its decision.
59. Choose the sentence that corrects the fragment: Because the roads were icy.
(A) We drove slowly because the roads were icy.
(B) We drove slowly, because the roads were icy.
(C) Because the roads were icy. We drove slowly.
(D) We drove slowly. Because the roads were icy.
60. Choose the sentence that uses the correct word.
(A) The orchestra sold fewer music last night than usual.
(B) There was fewer excitement at the matinee.
(C) There were fewer than ten tickets remaining.
(D) There were less than ten tickets remaining.
Answer Key
Step-by-step explanations for every question are available in the online simulator after completing the test.