Printable version — Practice Test 6
Click the button, then choose “Save as PDF” as the destination to download, or pick your printer to print on paper.
HSPT ScoreMax Simulator
Practice Test 6
298 questions · 5 separately timed sections. Time each section strictly, as shown at the start of each section.
Section 1: Verbal Skills
60 questions — Time limit: 16 minutes
Choose the word that means the same or about the same as the underlined word.
1. Lenient most nearly means
(A) strict
(B) tolerant
(C) curious
(D) wealthy
2. Tedious most nearly means
(A) thrilling
(B) brief
(C) difficult
(D) boring
3. Abrupt most nearly means
(A) sudden
(B) polite
(C) lengthy
(D) quiet
4. Valiant most nearly means
(A) brave
(B) famous
(C) cheerful
(D) careless
5. Mundane most nearly means
(A) mysterious
(B) expensive
(C) ordinary
(D) lively
6. Serene most nearly means
(A) noisy
(B) peaceful
(C) distant
(D) cloudy
7. Ample most nearly means
(A) empty
(B) tiny
(C) broken
(D) plentiful
8. Pliable most nearly means
(A) brittle
(B) heavy
(C) flexible
(D) smooth
9. Gaudy most nearly means
(A) flashy
(B) plain
(C) delicate
(D) ancient
10. Deplete most nearly means
(A) gather
(B) repair
(C) measure
(D) drain
11. Divulge most nearly means
(A) hide
(B) reveal
(C) forget
(D) borrow
12. Avid most nearly means
(A) enthusiastic
(B) reluctant
(C) weary
(D) clumsy
13. Animosity most nearly means
(A) friendship
(B) confusion
(C) laziness
(D) hatred
14. Peculiar most nearly means
(A) odd
(B) normal
(C) pleasant
(D) tidy
15. Consent most nearly means
(A) refuse
(B) wonder
(C) agree
(D) arrive
Choose the word that means the opposite of the word in capital letters.
16. INDULGENT means the opposite of
(A) strict
(B) generous
(C) patient
(D) kindly
17. PROLONG means the opposite of
(A) extend
(B) delay
(C) repeat
(D) shorten
18. NOVICE means the opposite of
(A) expert
(B) beginner
(C) student
(D) stranger
19. TURBULENT means the opposite of
(A) stormy
(B) violent
(C) calm
(D) noisy
20. SCOLD means the opposite of
(A) lecture
(B) criticize
(C) praise
(D) ignore
21. RECKLESS means the opposite of
(A) careless
(B) cautious
(C) hasty
(D) bold
22. UNIFY means the opposite of
(A) divide
(B) join
(C) combine
(D) gather
23. SURPLUS means the opposite of
(A) excess
(B) supply
(C) leftover
(D) shortage
24. THWART means the opposite of
(A) block
(B) assist
(C) confuse
(D) defeat
Choose the word that best completes the analogy.
25. Key is to lock as password is to
(A) keyboard
(B) account
(C) secret
(D) typing
26. Damp is to soaked as chilly is to
(A) mild
(B) cool
(C) warm
(D) frigid
27. Librarian is to library as curator is to
(A) museum
(B) painting
(C) visitor
(D) ticket
28. Horse is to stable as pig is to
(A) mud
(B) farm
(C) sty
(D) barn
29. Saw is to cut as scale is to
(A) kitchen
(B) ounce
(C) weigh
(D) heavy
30. Practice is to improvement as exercise is to
(A) gym
(B) fitness
(C) sweat
(D) running
31. Branch is to tree as antler is to
(A) horn
(B) forest
(C) bone
(D) deer
32. Brave is to cowardly as humble is to
(A) arrogant
(B) shy
(C) modest
(D) quiet
33. Rapid is to swift as fatigued is to
(A) energetic
(B) weary
(C) awake
(D) slow
34. Bee is to honey as hen is to
(A) rooster
(B) coop
(C) feather
(D) egg
Choose the word that does not belong with the others.
35. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) oak
(B) tulip
(C) birch
(D) maple
36. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) salmon
(B) trout
(C) tuna
(D) iguana
37. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) napkin
(B) spatula
(C) whisk
(D) ladle
38. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) nurse
(B) surgeon
(C) patient
(D) pharmacist
39. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) thermometer
(B) ruler
(C) hammer
(D) scale
40. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) sandal
(B) mitten
(C) boot
(D) sneaker
41. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) seize
(B) donate
(C) contribute
(D) grant
42. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) nickel
(B) dime
(C) quarter
(D) button
43. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) construct
(B) demolish
(C) erect
(D) assemble
44. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) gloomy
(B) chilly
(C) frigid
(D) frosty
45. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) kitchen
(B) bedroom
(C) attic
(D) chimney
46. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) wheat
(B) barley
(C) lettuce
(D) oats
47. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) syllable
(B) comma
(C) semicolon
(D) hyphen
48. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) owl
(B) bat
(C) raccoon
(D) robin
49. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) cotton
(B) cardboard
(C) silk
(D) wool
50. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) scrub
(B) mop
(C) stain
(D) rinse
If the first two statements are true, decide whether the third statement is true, false, or uncertain.
51. A slice of pizza at the snack bar costs more than a bag of pretzels. A bag of pretzels costs more than a juice box. A juice box costs less than a slice of pizza. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
52. Noah is older than Priya. Priya is older than Wes. Wes is older than Noah. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
53. All the students in the chess club attend Lincoln Middle School. Some students at Lincoln Middle School play the violin. Some students in the chess club play the violin. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
54. Every runner on the track team stretches before practice. Jamal is a runner on the track team. Jamal stretches before practice. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
55. Rosa's garden has more tomato plants than pepper plants. It has more pepper plants than squash plants. It has fewer tomato plants than squash plants. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
56. The bakery on Main Street sells more muffins each day than the cafe. The bakery also sells more muffins each day than the diner. The cafe sells more muffins each day than the diner. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
57. Kendra read fewer pages this week than Luis. Amir read more pages this week than Luis. Amir read more pages this week than Kendra. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
58. Some of the cars in the parking lot are electric. All the electric cars in the lot are parked in the front row. Every car in the front row is electric. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
59. No seventh grader at Kennedy School rides the early bus. Marisol rides the early bus. Marisol is a seventh grader at Kennedy School. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
60. The science fair ends before the band concert begins. The band concert ends before the school play begins. The science fair ends before the school play begins. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
Section 2: Quantitative Skills
52 questions — Time limit: 30 minutes
Choose the number that should come next (or that fits the blank) in the series.
1. Look at this series: 8, 14, 20, 26, 32, ... What number should come next?
(A) 36
(B) 38
(C) 40
(D) 44
2. Look at this series: 90, 81, 72, 63, ... What number should come next?
(A) 52
(B) 53
(C) 54
(D) 56
3. Look at this series: 5, 15, 45, 135, ... What number should come next?
(A) 405
(B) 270
(C) 375
(D) 445
4. Look at this series: 88, 44, 22, 11, ... What number should come next?
(A) 4.5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 5.5
5. Look at this series: 6, 14, 11, 19, 16, 24, ... What number should come next?
(A) 21
(B) 29
(C) 32
(D) 19
6. Look at this series: 3, 6, 7, 14, 15, 30, ... What number should come next?
(A) 60
(B) 32
(C) 31
(D) 29
7. Look at this series: 2, 50, 4, 45, 6, 40, ... What number should come next?
(A) 35
(B) 8
(C) 10
(D) 12
8. Look at this series: 3, 6, 10, 15, 21, ... What number should come next?
(A) 26
(B) 27
(C) 30
(D) 28
9. Look at this series: 0, 7, 26, 63, ... What number should come next?
(A) 124
(B) 125
(C) 100
(D) 116
10. Look at this series: 2, 6, 5, 15, 14, 42, ... What number should come next?
(A) 41
(B) 45
(C) 84
(D) 126
11. Look at this series: 0.2, 0.5, 0.8, 1.1, ... What number should come next?
(A) 1.3
(B) 1.5
(C) 1.4
(D) 2.2
12. Look at this series: 6, 8, 12, 18, 26, ... What number should come next?
(A) 36
(B) 34
(C) 38
(D) 32
13. Look at this series: 1, 5, 13, 29, 61, ... What number should come next?
(A) 122
(B) 118
(C) 127
(D) 125
14. Look at this series: 7, 13, 19, __, 31, 37. What number should fill the blank?
(A) 23
(B) 24
(C) 25
(D) 26
15. Look at this series: 160, 80, __, 20, 10. What number should fill the blank?
(A) 60
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 30
16. Look at this series: 10, 15, 20, 18, 23, 28, 26, ... What number should come next?
(A) 31
(B) 33
(C) 24
(D) 30
17. Look at this series: 16, 24, 36, 54, ... What number should come next?
(A) 72
(B) 76
(C) 84
(D) 81
18. Look at this series: 5, 90, 10, 80, 20, 70, ... What number should come next?
(A) 60
(B) 40
(C) 30
(D) 35
Examine the quantities and choose the best answer.
19. (a) the perimeter of a regular octagon with sides of 3 centimeters (b) the perimeter of a rectangle that is 7 centimeters long and 5 centimeters wide (c) the perimeter of a regular hexagon with sides of 5 centimeters
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (c) is less than (a)
(C) (a) and (b) are equal, and each is less than (c)
(D) (b) is greater than (a)
20. (a) 40% of 45 (b) 2/5 of 45 (c) 0.45 × 40
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (a) is greater than (b)
(C) (c) is less than (a) and (b)
(D) (b) is greater than (c)
21. (a) the area of a triangle with a base of 10 inches and a height of 6 inches (b) the area of a square with sides of 6 inches (c) the area of a rectangle that is 8 inches long and 4 inches wide
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (a) is greater than (b)
(C) (b) is less than (c)
(D) (a) is less than (c), and (c) is less than (b)
22. (a) 6² (b) 2 × 3 × 6 (c) 75 − 40
(A) (c) is greater than (a)
(B) (a) and (b) are equal, and each is greater than (c)
(C) (a) is less than (b)
(D) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
23. (a) the measure of each angle of a regular hexagon (b) the sum of two angles of an equilateral triangle (c) two-thirds of the number of degrees in a straight angle
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (a) is greater than (b) and (c)
(C) (c) is less than (a)
(D) (b) is less than (c)
24. (a) the number of vertices of a cube (b) the number of edges of a cube (c) the number of faces of a cube
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (a) is greater than (b)
(C) (b) is greater than (a), and (a) is greater than (c)
(D) (c) is greater than (b)
25. (a) 1/3 + 1/6 (b) 5/10 (c) 0.6
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (c) is less than (b)
(C) (a) is greater than (b)
(D) (a) and (b) are equal, and each is less than (c)
26. (a) the perimeter of a square with sides of 9 meters (b) the perimeter of an equilateral triangle with sides of 12 meters (c) the perimeter of a rectangle that is 11 meters long and 6 meters wide
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (a) and (b) are equal, and each is greater than (c)
(C) (c) is greater than (a)
(D) (b) is less than (a)
27. (a) the average of 8, 13, and 15 (b) 3/4 of 16 (c) 0.2 × 55
(A) (c) is greater than (a)
(B) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(C) (a) is less than (b)
(D) (a) and (b) are equal, and each is greater than (c)
28. (a) 9 × 6 (b) 200 ÷ 4 (c) 45 + 8
(A) (a) is greater than (c), and (c) is greater than (b)
(B) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(C) (b) is greater than (a)
(D) (a) is less than (c)
29. (a) the area of a square with sides of 7 inches (b) the area of a triangle with a base of 14 inches and a height of 7 inches (c) the area of a rectangle that is 10 inches long and 5 inches wide
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (a) and (b) are equal, and each is less than (c)
(C) (c) is less than (a)
(D) (a) is greater than (b)
30. (a) 12% of 50 (b) 50% of 12 (c) 1/8 of 48
(A) (a) is greater than (b)
(B) (b) is less than (c)
(C) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(D) (c) is greater than (a) and (b)
31. (a) the measure of each angle of an equilateral triangle (b) the number of degrees in a right angle (c) the measure of each angle of a regular pentagon
(A) (a) is less than (b), and (b) is less than (c)
(B) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(C) (a) is greater than (c)
(D) (c) is less than (b)
32. (a) the radius of a circle with a diameter of 18 inches (b) the length of one side of a square with a perimeter of 32 inches (c) the length of one side of an equilateral triangle with a perimeter of 27 inches
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (b) is greater than (a)
(C) (a) is less than (c)
(D) (a) and (c) are equal, and each is greater than (b)
33. (a) 2⁵ (b) 5² (c) 10² ÷ 4
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (a) is less than (b)
(C) (b) and (c) are equal, and each is less than (a)
(D) (c) is greater than (a)
34. (a) the sum of the angle measures of a quadrilateral (b) the number of degrees the minute hand of a clock turns in 30 minutes (c) the number of degrees in two right angles
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (b) and (c) are equal, and each is less than (a)
(C) (b) is greater than (c)
(D) (a) is less than (c)
35. (a) (12 − 4) × 3 (b) 12 − 4 × 3 (c) 12 × 3 − 4
(A) (c) is greater than (a), and (a) is greater than (b)
(B) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(C) (b) is greater than (c)
(D) (a) is greater than (c)
Work each problem and choose the best answer.
36. What number is 8 more than 45% of 60?
(A) 19
(B) 27
(C) 35
(D) 43
37. 2/7 of what number is 14?
(A) 49
(B) 56
(C) 98
(D) 196
38. What is the product of 8 and 6, decreased by the quotient of 63 and 9?
(A) 7
(B) 14
(C) 39
(D) 41
39. When a number is divided by 6 and then increased by 5, the result is 12. What is the number?
(A) 7
(B) 42
(C) 77
(D) 102
40. What number is 15 less than the square of 9?
(A) 3
(B) 66
(C) 81
(D) 96
41. What is the average of 17, 25, and 36?
(A) 24
(B) 25
(C) 26
(D) 39
42. What number is 4 times the sum of 13 and 9?
(A) 22
(B) 52
(C) 61
(D) 88
43. What is 5% of 320, increased by 9?
(A) 25
(B) 41
(C) 89
(D) 169
44. What is 2/5 of 35 increased by 1/3 of 27?
(A) 5
(B) 21
(C) 23
(D) 25
45. What number is 6 more than the product of 8 and 12?
(A) 26
(B) 90
(C) 96
(D) 102
46. If 2/9 of a number is 8, what is 1/3 of that number?
(A) 12
(B) 18
(C) 24
(D) 36
47. What is the cube of 3 multiplied by the square of 5?
(A) 225
(B) 675
(C) 1125
(D) 3375
48. What number is 9 more than the quotient of 84 and 6?
(A) 12
(B) 14
(C) 23
(D) 93
49. The sum of two numbers is 41, and their difference is 9. What is the larger number?
(A) 16
(B) 25
(C) 32
(D) 50
50. What is one half of the difference between 76 and 28?
(A) 24
(B) 48
(C) 52
(D) 104
51. What is 25% of 48 added to 10% of 130?
(A) 1
(B) 12
(C) 13
(D) 25
52. When 84 is divided by a number, the result is 12. What is the number?
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 72
Section 3: Reading
62 questions — Time limit: 25 minutes
Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
1. Which sentence best states the main idea of the passage?
(A) Store-bought tamales are more convenient than homemade ones.
(B) A great-grandmother in Texas invented a famous tamale recipe.
(C) While learning to make tamales, the narrator discovers that the recipe ties the family to its history.
(D) A grandfather explains why written recipe cards are more reliable than memory.
2. According to the passage, where did great-grandmother Lucia sell her tamales?
(A) At a market in Oaxaca, Mexico
(B) At a grocery store in Texas
(C) From a restaurant she owned
(D) At her family's December parties
3. Why does Abuelo Rafael cook without a recipe card?
(A) He lost the card when he moved to Texas.
(B) He changes the ingredients every year.
(C) He is afraid someone will steal the recipe.
(D) He learned by watching his mother and believes hands remember better than paper.
4. As used in the passage, the word painstaking most nearly means
(A) painful
(B) careful and thorough
(C) quick and easy
(D) expensive
5. How do the narrator's feelings about making tamales change during the day?
(A) From excitement to boredom
(B) From impatience to appreciation
(C) From fear to anger
(D) From confidence to disappointment
6. According to the passage, how can a cook tell that the masa is ready?
(A) It turns a golden brown color.
(B) It stops sticking to the spoon.
(C) Abuelo tastes a spoonful of it.
(D) A small ball of it floats in a glass of water.
7. The author's main purpose in this passage is to
(A) show how learning a family recipe connected the narrator to earlier generations
(B) persuade readers to cook their own food instead of buying it
(C) give step-by-step instructions for making tamales
(D) describe how December holidays are celebrated in Texas
8. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
(A) Shopping for the Perfect Tamale
(B) Eight Children in Oaxaca
(C) More Than a Recipe
(D) How to Use a Kitchen Steamer
9. Which sentence best states the main idea of the passage?
(A) Octopuses are dangerous animals that often escape from aquariums.
(B) Octopuses are surprising animals whose camouflage, intelligence, and boneless bodies set them apart.
(C) Chromatophores are found in many kinds of sea creatures.
(D) Scientists have finished learning everything about octopus behavior.
10. According to the passage, how does a chromatophore display its color?
(A) The sac fills up with colored seawater.
(B) The skin absorbs colors from nearby fish.
(C) The brain releases dye onto the surface of the skin.
(D) Muscles around the pigment sac contract and stretch it wide.
11. According to the passage, which is the only hard part of an octopus's body?
(A) Its beak
(B) Its skull
(C) Its arms
(D) Its shell
12. As used in the passage, the word elaborate most nearly means
(A) decorated
(B) famous
(C) complicated
(D) cheerful
13. Based on the passage, why can an octopus's arms act partly on their own?
(A) Most of the animal's nerve cells are located in the arms themselves.
(B) Each arm contains its own small beak.
(C) The arms are supported by tiny, flexible bones.
(D) The central brain shuts down while the octopus hunts.
14. Which of the following is given as an example of octopus problem solving?
(A) Building shelters out of coral
(B) Changing color to frighten sharks
(C) Hunting together in large groups
(D) Unscrewing a jar lid to reach a crab inside
15. The author's main purpose in this passage is to
(A) persuade readers to keep octopuses as pets
(B) tell the story of one famous aquarium escape
(C) inform readers about the unusual abilities of octopuses
(D) warn scientists about the dangers of studying sea animals
16. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
(A) How to Set Up a Saltwater Aquarium
(B) Eight Arms Full of Surprises
(C) The Life Cycle of the Octopus
(D) Camouflage Among Desert Animals
17. Which sentence best states the main idea of the passage?
(A) Stagecoach travel was the safest way to cross the frontier in 1860.
(B) The transcontinental telegraph was the greatest invention of the 1800s.
(C) Teenagers in the Old West could earn high pay for dangerous jobs.
(D) The Pony Express was a fast horseback mail relay that became legendary even though new technology soon replaced it.
18. According to the passage, the Pony Express carried mail between which two cities?
(A) New York City and San Francisco
(B) St. Joseph, Missouri, and Sacramento, California
(C) Chicago, Illinois, and Los Angeles, California
(D) Boston, Massachusetts, and Portland, Oregon
19. According to the passage, what usually happened when a rider reached a relay station?
(A) The mail was sorted and stamped before moving on.
(B) A brand-new rider took over at every single station.
(C) The rider switched to a fresh horse in about two minutes.
(D) Telegraph operators copied the letters into messages.
20. As used in the passage, the word grueling most nearly means
(A) exhausting
(B) rewarding
(C) simple
(D) peaceful
21. Based on the passage, why did the transcontinental telegraph put the Pony Express out of business?
(A) It cost customers less than mailing a letter.
(B) Its lines followed a much shorter route to California.
(C) The riders refused to compete with the new machines.
(D) It could send messages far faster than even the quickest riders.
22. Why did the company hire small, light riders?
(A) So the horses would not be worn out by carrying heavy loads
(B) Because teenagers agreed to work for very low pay
(C) Because small riders could hide inside the mochila
(D) So that two riders could share a single horse
23. The author's attitude toward the Pony Express riders can best be described as
(A) critical
(B) admiring
(C) amused
(D) fearful
24. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
(A) How the Telegraph Was Invented
(B) Famous Horses of the American West
(C) Ten Days to California: The Pony Express
(D) President Lincoln's Journey to Washington
25. Which sentence best states the main idea of the passage?
(A) Charles Barbier invented a reading system that blind students immediately adopted.
(B) Books with raised letters were too expensive for most schools to buy.
(C) Louis Braille, blinded as a child, transformed a soldier's code into a simple reading system now used worldwide.
(D) The Royal Institute for Blind Youth was the most famous school in Paris.
26. According to the passage, how did Louis Braille become blind?
(A) An injury from a sharp tool in his father's workshop became infected.
(B) He was born blind in the village of Coupvray.
(C) He caught a serious illness while studying in Paris.
(D) He was hurt during a demonstration of night writing.
27. According to the passage, what was the main problem with the books at the Royal Institute?
(A) They were written in a secret military code.
(B) They used dots that were too small to feel.
(C) The school refused to let students touch them.
(D) They were heavy, expensive, and very slow to read.
28. Charles Barbier's "night writing" was originally designed to
(A) help blind students read their schoolbooks
(B) let soldiers pass messages in the dark
(C) teach the alphabet to young children
(D) record the names of soldiers in the army
29. It can be inferred from the passage that Louis Braille improved on night writing mainly by
(A) using fewer dots so a whole cell could be felt with one fingertip
(B) adding more dots so that more letters could be shown
(C) replacing the dots with large raised letters
(D) making the code readable only by lamplight
30. As used in the passage, the word "clumsy" most nearly means
(A) dangerous
(B) dishonest
(C) invisible
(D) awkward
31. The author's main purpose in writing this passage is to
(A) persuade schools to buy more braille books
(B) explain step by step how to write the braille alphabet
(C) describe how Louis Braille came to create his reading system
(D) compare French schools with schools in other countries
32. Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
(A) A Soldier's Secret Code
(B) The Teenager Whose Dots Opened Books
(C) Growing Up in a French Village
(D) The History of the Printing Press
33. Which sentence best states the main idea of the passage?
(A) City councils exist mainly to build skate parks and run libraries.
(B) City councils follow open, step-by-step procedures so residents can know about and influence local decisions.
(C) Public comment periods are the only way residents can affect their city.
(D) Resolutions are more important to a city than ordinances.
34. According to the passage, an agenda is
(A) a formal statement of the council's opinion
(B) a local law that sets speed limits near schools
(C) a speech given during the public comment period
(D) a list of the topics the council plans to discuss at a meeting
35. According to the passage, an ordinance differs from a resolution because an ordinance
(A) is an actual local law
(B) is posted online before every meeting
(C) requires every council member to vote yes
(D) can be passed without any discussion
36. The passage states that most council decisions pass with
(A) a unanimous vote of all the members
(B) the approval of the state government
(C) a simple majority of the members
(D) a two-thirds vote of the city's residents
37. It can be inferred that ordinances are voted on at two separate meetings mainly to
(A) save the council members time
(B) keep residents from attending the second meeting
(C) make sure the agenda stays short
(D) give the public extra time to react before a law takes effect
38. As used in the passage, the word "routine" most nearly means
(A) ordinary
(B) secret
(C) dangerous
(D) unfair
39. The author's attitude toward the slowness of council decisions is best described as
(A) annoyed, because the delays waste everyone's time
(B) approving, because the delays give people time to be heard
(C) confused, because the rules make no sense
(D) fearful, because slow decisions put residents in danger
40. Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
(A) Why Every Town Needs a Skate Park
(B) How to Run for City Council
(C) How Your City Council Makes Decisions
(D) The History of American Local Government
Choose the word that means the same or about the same as the underlined word.
41. a furtive glance
(A) casual
(B) cheerful
(C) sneaky
(D) lengthy
42. to fret over the delay
(A) worry
(B) celebrate
(C) forget
(D) insist
43. the pinnacle of her career
(A) beginning
(B) failure
(C) memory
(D) peak
44. a garrulous neighbor
(A) grumpy
(B) talkative
(C) elderly
(D) generous
45. to rescind the invitation
(A) accept
(B) cancel
(C) deliver
(D) write
46. a pungent odor
(A) faint
(B) sweet
(C) sharp
(D) pleasant
47. an irate customer
(A) furious
(B) patient
(C) loyal
(D) confused
48. to saunter down the sidewalk
(A) race
(B) stumble
(C) march
(D) stroll
49. a look of trepidation
(A) joy
(B) boredom
(C) dread
(D) relief
50. the aroma of fresh bread
(A) taste
(B) scent
(C) warmth
(D) price
51. acting on a hunch
(A) guess
(B) command
(C) promise
(D) schedule
52. to placate the angry fans
(A) soothe
(B) ignore
(C) scold
(D) gather
53. an opulent mansion
(A) abandoned
(B) ancient
(C) gloomy
(D) luxurious
54. to scrutinize the contract
(A) sign
(B) shred
(C) examine
(D) forget
55. a morose silence
(A) cheerful
(B) gloomy
(C) brief
(D) puzzled
56. in a difficult quandary
(A) journey
(B) contest
(C) lecture
(D) dilemma
57. a listless performance
(A) tired
(B) lively
(C) flawless
(D) noisy
58. to embellish the story
(A) shorten
(B) memorize
(C) exaggerate
(D) translate
59. a nomadic tribe
(A) warlike
(B) friendly
(C) vanished
(D) wandering
60. an era of prosperity
(A) conflict
(B) wealth
(C) drought
(D) silence
61. to jettison the extra supplies
(A) discard
(B) purchase
(C) protect
(D) count
62. a wistful sigh
(A) angry
(B) relieved
(C) bored
(D) longing
Section 4: Mathematics
64 questions — Time limit: 45 minutes
Choose the best answer.
1. In the number 92,507, the digit 2 is in which place?
(A) ten-thousands
(B) thousands
(C) hundreds
(D) tens
2. In the decimal 6.049, the digit 9 is in which place?
(A) tenths
(B) hundreds
(C) hundredths
(D) thousandths
3. What is 35,462 rounded to the nearest thousand?
(A) 35,000
(B) 36,000
(C) 35,500
(D) 35,400
4. Which is the best estimate of 612 ÷ 29?
(A) about 2
(B) about 200
(C) about 20
(D) about 30
5. Which of the following numbers is prime?
(A) 51
(B) 57
(C) 53
(D) 63
6. What is the greatest common factor of 18 and 30?
(A) 6
(B) 90
(C) 3
(D) 2
7. What is the least common multiple of 4 and 10?
(A) 40
(B) 20
(C) 2
(D) 10
8. Which of the following numbers is divisible by 6?
(A) 262
(B) 466
(C) 562
(D) 342
9. The expression 5³ has a value of
(A) 15
(B) 125
(C) 555
(D) 243
10. Between which two consecutive whole numbers does √90 lie?
(A) 9 and 10
(B) 8 and 9
(C) 10 and 11
(D) 45 and 46
11. Which of the following numbers is a perfect cube?
(A) 9
(B) 16
(C) 100
(D) 27
12. The product of any two even numbers is always
(A) odd
(B) prime
(C) even
(D) negative
13. Which equation is an example of the associative property of multiplication?
(A) (2 × 3) × 4 = 2 × (3 × 4)
(B) 2 × 3 = 3 × 2
(C) 2 × (3 + 4) = 2 × 3 + 2 × 4
(D) 5 × 1 = 5
14. Which of the following numbers has the greatest absolute value?
(A) 10
(B) −12
(C) 7
(D) −5
15. Which fraction is equivalent to 0.6?
(A) 6/100
(B) 2/3
(C) 1/6
(D) 3/5
16. Written as a decimal, 75% is equal to
(A) 7.5
(B) 0.075
(C) 75.0
(D) 0.75
17. Which of the following decimals has the least value?
(A) 0.5
(B) 0.31
(C) 0.099
(D) 0.25
18. An angle that measures 42° is called
(A) acute
(B) obtuse
(C) right
(D) straight
19. A triangle that has exactly two sides of equal length is called
(A) equilateral
(B) scalene
(C) isosceles
(D) right
20. A quadrilateral with exactly one pair of parallel sides is called a
(A) parallelogram
(B) trapezoid
(C) rhombus
(D) rectangle
21. A chord that passes through the center of a circle is called a
(A) diameter
(B) radius
(C) tangent
(D) arc
22. Which customary unit is most appropriate for measuring the weight of a loaded school bus?
(A) ounces
(B) pounds
(C) tons
(D) gallons
23. To find the mean (average) of a set of data, you should
(A) choose the middle value when the data are in order
(B) find the value that appears most often
(C) subtract the least value from the greatest value
(D) add all the values and divide by the number of values
24. The probability of any event must always be
(A) greater than 1
(B) a number from 0 to 1
(C) exactly 1/2
(D) a negative number
Solve each problem and choose the best answer.
25. The Maple Ridge hiking club is walking a trail that is 7 1/2 miles long. The group covers 2/5 of the trail before stopping for lunch. How many miles do they hike before lunch?
(A) 4 1/2
(B) 3
(C) 2 1/2
(D) 3 3/4
26. A weekend badge for the Starfall Comic Convention normally costs $28. Students receive a 15% discount. What does a student pay for the badge?
(A) $25.20
(B) $4.20
(C) $24.00
(D) $23.80
27. Three less than four times a number is 25. What is the number?
(A) 7
(B) 5
(C) 8
(D) 6
28. At the eighth-grade car wash fundraiser, the ratio of trucks washed to cars washed was 2 to 7. If 63 vehicles were washed in all, how many were cars?
(A) 14
(B) 42
(C) 49
(D) 45
29. Priya cuts a ribbon that is 4.5 feet long into pieces that are each 0.75 foot long. How many pieces does she get?
(A) 6
(B) 0.6
(C) 5
(D) 7
30. On its last five outings, the hiking club walked 8, 12, 15, 9, and 6 miles. What is the median of these distances?
(A) 10
(B) 15
(C) 12
(D) 9
31. The hiking club's trip up Bear Knob took 2 hours 45 minutes. How many minutes is that?
(A) 245
(B) 165
(C) 125
(D) 175
32. A jacket priced at $60.00 is on sale for 30% off. An 8% sales tax is then added to the sale price. What is the total cost of the jacket?
(A) $42.00
(B) $46.80
(C) $45.36
(D) $43.20
33. The car wash fundraiser charges $5 per vehicle and spent $35 on soap and sponges. How many vehicles must the students wash to make a profit of exactly $165?
(A) 26
(B) 33
(C) 45
(D) 40
34. On the hiking club's trail map, 1.5 inches represents 6 miles. A trail that measures 4 inches on the map is how many miles long?
(A) 16
(B) 9
(C) 12
(D) 24
35. At the comic convention, Dario spends 1/3 of his money on a poster and 1/4 of his money on lunch. What fraction of his money does he spend in all?
(A) 2/7
(B) 1/2
(C) 7/12
(D) 5/12
36. Lena deposits $800 in a savings account that pays 3% simple interest per year. How much interest does she earn in 2 years?
(A) $24
(B) $48
(C) $848
(D) $480
37. Solve for x: 3x - 7 = 20
(A) 9
(B) 4 1/3
(C) 27
(D) 13
38. Jamal's science quiz scores are 84, 90, 76, 90, and 85. What is the range of his scores?
(A) 90
(B) 85
(C) 14
(D) 76
39. A backpack with an original price of $80 is sold for $68. By what percent was the price reduced?
(A) 12%
(B) 85%
(C) 20%
(D) 15%
40. A box of graphic novels for the comic convention weighs 4.5 pounds. How many ounces does it weigh?
(A) 45
(B) 72
(C) 54
(D) 64
41. A candy maker has 3/4 pound of fudge and packs it into bags that each hold 1/8 pound. How many bags can she fill?
(A) 3/32
(B) 8
(C) 6
(D) 4
42. A recipe uses 3 cups of flour to make 24 cookies. At that rate, how many cookies can be made with 5 cups of flour?
(A) 40
(B) 45
(C) 36
(D) 30
43. After a 20% discount, a skateboard costs $68. What was its original price?
(A) $81.60
(B) $54.40
(C) $88.00
(D) $85.00
44. Solve for x: x/4 + 3 = 10
(A) 52
(B) 28
(C) 1 3/4
(D) 40
45. A rectangular picture frame is 18 inches long and 11 inches wide. How many inches of wooden trim are needed to go all the way around the frame?
(A) 29 inches
(B) 116 inches
(C) 58 inches
(D) 198 inches
46. A train travels 240 miles in 4 hours at a constant speed. At that same speed, how long will it take the train to travel 390 miles?
(A) 6.5 hours
(B) 6 hours
(C) 7 hours
(D) 5.5 hours
47. What is the value of 3⁴ − 2⁵?
(A) 2
(B) 56
(C) 24
(D) 49
48. A patio is shaped like a large rectangle 12 feet long and 9 feet wide, with a smaller rectangle 5 feet by 4 feet cut out of one corner. What is the area of the patio?
(A) 108 square feet
(B) 88 square feet
(C) 128 square feet
(D) 92 square feet
49. A spinner has 12 equal sections numbered 1 through 12. What is the probability that one spin lands on a multiple of 3?
(A) 1/4
(B) 1/2
(C) 1/6
(D) 1/3
50. In a triangle, two of the angles measure 52° and 74°. What is the measure of the third angle?
(A) 126°
(B) 64°
(C) 54°
(D) 44°
51. Marcus buys 2 movie tickets that cost $8.75 each and a popcorn that costs $5.20. If he pays with a $25 bill, how much change should he receive?
(A) $2.30
(B) $3.30
(C) $11.05
(D) $2.05
52. An aquarium shaped like a rectangular prism is 15 inches long, 8 inches wide, and 10 inches tall. What is its volume?
(A) 700 cubic inches
(B) 1,200 cubic inches
(C) 600 cubic inches
(D) 33 cubic inches
53. The front of a shed is a rectangle 10 meters wide and 6 meters tall, topped by a triangle with a base of 10 meters and a height of 4 meters. What is the total area of the front of the shed?
(A) 100 square meters
(B) 70 square meters
(C) 84 square meters
(D) 80 square meters
54. Priya jogs at a steady speed of 6 miles per hour for 45 minutes. How far does she jog?
(A) 4.5 miles
(B) 4 miles
(C) 7.5 miles
(D) 5 miles
55. At 7 A.M. the temperature was −6°F. It rose 14 degrees by noon and then dropped 3 degrees by 5 P.M. What was the temperature at 5 P.M.?
(A) 11°F
(B) 17°F
(C) 5°F
(D) −5°F
56. Two angles are supplementary, and the larger angle is 5 times as large as the smaller one. What is the measure of the smaller angle?
(A) 45°
(B) 30°
(C) 150°
(D) 15°
57. A pair of sneakers is priced at $50. It is on sale for 30% off, and a 6% sales tax is added to the sale price. What is the total cost?
(A) $37.10
(B) $35.00
(C) $38.00
(D) $32.90
58. A cube-shaped box has edges that are 6 inches long. How many small cubes with 2-inch edges will fit exactly inside the box?
(A) 36
(B) 54
(C) 18
(D) 27
59. A rectangular rug is twice as long as it is wide, and its perimeter is 48 feet. What is the area of the rug?
(A) 48 square feet
(B) 96 square feet
(C) 128 square feet
(D) 64 square feet
60. A fair coin is flipped two times. What is the probability that it lands on heads both times?
(A) 1/2
(B) 1/4
(C) 3/4
(D) 1/3
61. Two towns are 180 miles apart. A car leaves the first town at 9:00 A.M. and drives at an average speed of 48 miles per hour. At what time does it reach the second town?
(A) 12:45 P.M.
(B) 12:30 P.M.
(C) 1:00 P.M.
(D) 12:15 P.M.
62. What is the value of (−3)² + (−2)³?
(A) −17
(B) 17
(C) −1
(D) 1
63. Lena earns $9 per hour babysitting. She worked 3.5 hours on Friday and 4 hours on Saturday, and then she spent $28.50 on a gift. How much of her earnings does she have left?
(A) $67.50
(B) $39.00
(C) $34.50
(D) $43.50
64. In an isosceles triangle, the angle between the two equal sides measures 52°. What is the measure of each of the other two angles?
(A) 52°
(B) 128°
(C) 64°
(D) 74°
Section 5: Language
60 questions — Time limit: 25 minutes
Look for errors in punctuation, capitalization, or usage. If there is no error, choose (D).
1. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) We pitched our tent beside a quiet stream.
(B) Dad taught us how to build a safe campfire.
(C) The stars looked brighter than they ever do at home.
(D) No mistakes.
2. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Maria packed the flashlights in her backpack.
(B) The bag of marshmallows were left on the picnic table.
(C) We heard an owl hooting just after sunset.
(D) No mistakes.
3. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Me and Jake carried the cooler down to the campsite.
(B) The ranger warned us about raccoons near the trash bins.
(C) Our sleeping bags kept us warm all night.
(D) No mistakes.
4. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The trail to the waterfall was steep but beautiful.
(B) Everyone helped fold the tent on Sunday morning.
(C) It started to rain, we hurried to zip up the tent flaps.
(D) No mistakes.
5. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The drummers sticks flew out of his hands during the solo.
(B) Our band rehearses every Tuesday in the school gym.
(C) Mrs. Alvarez asked us to tune our instruments first.
(D) No mistakes.
6. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The trumpets carried the melody in the second song.
(B) Practice ran late because we repeated the final march.
(C) Devon cleaned his saxophone before putting it away.
(D) No mistakes.
7. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The clarinet section finally mastered the tricky rhythm.
(B) We will perform at the spring concert in May.
(C) Our director studied music at a college in ohio.
(D) No mistakes.
8. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Tina practiced her flute solo until it was perfect.
(B) Yesterday the whole band play the school song twice.
(C) The new sheet music arrived just before rehearsal.
(D) No mistakes.
9. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The sea otters floated on their backs in the sunny pool.
(B) Our guide explained how jellyfish drift with the current.
(C) We watched a diver feed the stingrays by hand.
(D) No mistakes.
10. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The school of silver fish dart past the glass every minute.
(B) Amir took photos of the giant Pacific octopus.
(C) The touch tank was crowded with curious visitors.
(D) No mistakes.
11. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The penguins waddled across the icy platform.
(B) The guide gave my sister and I a map of the exhibits.
(C) Sharks glided silently above the underwater tunnel.
(D) No mistakes.
12. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) We ate lunch at the café overlooking the dolphin pool.
(B) The seahorse exhibit was smaller than I expected.
(C) The show ended everyone clapped for the trainers.
(D) No mistakes.
13. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) School was canceled after the heavy snowfall.
(B) We shoveled the driveway before building a snowman.
(C) Hot chocolate never tasted better than it did that afternoon.
(D) No mistakes.
14. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Icicles hung from the edge of the porch roof.
(B) The sled lost it's runner halfway down the hill.
(C) Nina wore two pairs of socks inside her boots.
(D) No mistakes.
15. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The blizzard swept in from canada overnight.
(B) Our neighbor helped us dig out the mailbox.
(C) Snowflakes clung to the branches of the pine tree.
(D) No mistakes.
16. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) We built a fort with walls almost four feet high.
(B) The plow finally cleared our street around noon.
(C) Tomorrow we sledded down the hill behind the library.
(D) No mistakes.
17. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Each of the cupcakes were decorated with pink frosting.
(B) The bake sale raised money for the science club.
(C) Customers lined up before the table was even ready.
(D) No mistakes.
18. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Lucas arranged the brownies neatly on a silver tray.
(B) The lemon bars sold out within the first hour.
(C) We counted the money carefully at the end of the day.
(D) No mistakes.
19. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Mrs. Chen donated three dozen chocolate chip cookies.
(B) Her and Talia counted out change for the customers.
(C) The banner above our table announced the sale in bright letters.
(D) No mistakes.
20. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The muffins smelled wonderful as we unpacked them.
(B) Principal Ruiz thanked everyone for volunteering.
(C) All of the pie's disappeared before the sale ended.
(D) No mistakes.
21. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) We packed sandwiches and lemonade for our day at the beach.
(B) The children left there sandals near the lifeguard stand.
(C) A cool breeze drifted across the water all afternoon.
(D) No mistakes.
22. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The noisy hallway did not effect Marcus's concentration.
(B) He found three helpful books about ancient Egypt.
(C) The librarian showed him how to use the online catalog.
(D) No mistakes.
23. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Our team practices every Tuesday and Thursday.
(B) The new goalie made several impressive saves.
(C) We scored less goals this season than last season.
(D) No mistakes.
24. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Nearly forty relatives gathered at the park for the reunion.
(B) Aunt Rosa brought her famous peach cobbler.
(C) The cousins organized a three-legged race after lunch.
(D) No mistakes.
25. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The pottery wheel lost it's balance and began to wobble.
(B) Ms. Delgado demonstrated how to blend watercolors.
(C) Each student chose a subject for the final project.
(D) No mistakes.
26. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The tide rose quickly in the late afternoon.
(B) Dad rented a bright yellow umbrella for the day.
(C) Maya swims much faster then her older brother.
(D) No mistakes.
27. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Jenna took careful notes on a stack of index cards.
(B) She couldn't find no articles about desert climates.
(C) The reference section is on the second floor.
(D) No mistakes.
28. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The championship game begins at noon on Saturday.
(B) Coach Ramirez reminded us to bring extra water.
(C) Our midfielder passed the ball with perfect timing.
(D) No mistakes.
29. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Grandpa told stories about his childhood in Ohio.
(B) The twins wore matching shirts with the family name.
(C) This year's reunion was more bigger than last year's.
(D) No mistakes.
30. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The teacher announced, "Clay projects are due Friday".
(B) Sculpting takes patience and a steady hand.
(C) Leo added tiny details to his miniature dragon.
(D) No mistakes.
31. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Seagulls circled above the crowded boardwalk.
(B) We built a sandcastle with a deep moat around it.
(C) Mom reminded everyone to reapply sunscreen at noon.
(D) No mistakes.
32. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Tanya's report is about the history of jazz music.
(B) She checked out a biography of rosa parks.
(C) The report must include at least five sources.
(D) No mistakes.
33. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Each of the players have a numbered jersey.
(B) The referee blew the whistle to start the match.
(C) Fans cheered loudly from the metal bleachers.
(D) No mistakes.
34. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Uncle Theo grilled burgers and corn on the cob.
(B) The family photo took nearly twenty minutes to arrange.
(C) Me and my cousin won the water balloon toss.
(D) No mistakes.
35. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The art room smells like fresh paint and clay.
(B) Priya's collage won a ribbon at the district show.
(C) We cleaned every brush before leaving the classroom.
(D) No mistakes.
36. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The lifeguard raised a green flag this morning.
(B) The waves were gentle, we floated for nearly an hour.
(C) Ben collected smooth stones along the shoreline.
(D) No mistakes.
37. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Devon should of started his research project much earlier.
(B) The study rooms can be reserved online.
(C) A quiet corner near the window is my favorite spot.
(D) No mistakes.
38. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Our forward practiced penalty kicks after school.
(B) The grass on the field was freshly mowed.
(C) Sofia played good in the semifinal game.
(D) No mistakes.
39. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The reunion ended with a giant group hug.
(B) Each of the cousins were given a sparkler.
(C) Grandma handed out slices of cold watermelon.
(D) No mistakes.
40. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Mr. Chen displayed our sketches in the hallway.
(B) Charcoal drawings require a light touch.
(C) The kiln stays hot for hours after firing.
(D) No mistakes.
Look for mistakes in spelling only.
41. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The store manager offered a full guarentee on every bicycle sold.
(B) Our class collected canned goods for the food drive in November.
(C) Priya finished the crossword puzzle before breakfast on Sunday.
(D) No mistakes.
42. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The gymnast performed a graceful routine on the balance beam.
(B) Diego measured the flour carefully before mixing the batter.
(C) A flock of geese flew over the frozen pond this morning.
(D) No mistakes.
43. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Volunteers cleaned the hiking trail after the spring storm.
(B) It is cruel to harrass the new students about their accents.
(C) The dentist reminded Jalen to floss every evening.
(D) No mistakes.
44. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The recipe calls for two cups of shredded cheese.
(B) Aunt Carmen repaired the squeaky hinge on the back door.
(C) The nurse measured each student's hieght during the physical exam.
(D) No mistakes.
45. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Please respond immediatly if you plan to attend the awards banquet.
(B) The janitor propped the gym door open with a wooden wedge.
(C) Fresh snow covered the parking lot before dawn.
(D) No mistakes.
46. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The twins built a sandcastle taller than their beach umbrella.
(B) Rosa is proud to be an independant reader who finishes a novel each week.
(C) Thunder rumbled in the distance as the picnic ended.
(D) No mistakes.
47. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Grandfather taught us to play checkers on rainy afternoons.
(B) The museum displayed ancient maps from early explorers.
(C) Naomi kept her silver jewelery in a small velvet box.
(D) No mistakes.
48. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The coach was dissapointed by the missed penalty kick.
(B) Sailboats drifted across the calm harbor at sunset.
(C) Kevin sharpened every pencil before the spelling bee began.
(D) No mistakes.
49. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The librarian suggested a mystery novel about a hidden staircase.
(B) Everyone applauded when the drama club took its final bow.
(C) Colorful kites danced above the crowded beach on Saturday.
(D) No mistakes.
50. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The astronauts trained for months before the launch.
(B) A good encyclopedia is full of useful knowlege about the world.
(C) Mia folded the laundry while listening to a podcast.
(D) No mistakes.
Choose the best answer.
51. Which choice best combines the sentences? "Maya practiced her violin every evening. She earned first chair in the school orchestra."
(A) Maya practiced her violin every evening, she earned first chair in the school orchestra.
(B) Maya practiced her violin every evening, but she earned first chair in the school orchestra.
(C) Because she practiced her violin every evening, Maya earned first chair in the school orchestra.
(D) Maya earned first chair in the school orchestra, and practicing her violin was every evening.
52. Which choice best combines the sentences? "The library closes at noon on Saturdays. We arrived at eleven thirty."
(A) The library closes at noon on Saturdays, we arrived at eleven thirty.
(B) The library closes at noon on Saturdays because we arrived at eleven thirty.
(C) We arrived at eleven thirty, and closing the library at noon was on Saturdays.
(D) Since the library closes at noon on Saturdays, we arrived at eleven thirty.
53. Which sentence would make the best topic sentence for a paragraph about the benefits of keeping a daily journal?
(A) Keeping a daily journal helps students organize their thoughts, remember important events, and improve their writing.
(B) Some notebooks have spiral bindings and others are stitched.
(C) My cousin once lost his journal on a camping trip.
(D) Pens come in many different colors of ink.
54. Which sentence would make the best topic sentence for a paragraph about how volunteering helps teenagers?
(A) Animal shelters often need donations of old towels.
(B) Volunteering teaches teenagers responsibility, builds new skills, and connects them with their community.
(C) Saturday mornings can be busy at the food pantry.
(D) Some teenagers like to sleep late on weekends.
55. Which sentence does not belong in this paragraph? (1) A lighthouse guides ships safely along rocky coastlines at night. (2) Its powerful lamp flashes in a pattern that sailors can recognize from miles away. (3) Many tourists enjoy buying souvenirs at gift shops near the harbor. (4) Each lighthouse uses a different pattern so captains know exactly which coast they are approaching.
(A) Sentence 1
(B) Sentence 2
(C) Sentence 3
(D) Sentence 4
56. Which sentence does not belong in this paragraph? (1) The school garden club planted tomatoes, peppers, and beans this spring. (2) Basketball tryouts will be held in the gym next October. (3) Club members water the vegetables every morning before class. (4) In June, the harvest will be donated to a local food bank.
(A) Sentence 1
(B) Sentence 2
(C) Sentence 3
(D) Sentence 4
57. Which of these sentences expresses the idea most clearly?
(A) After finishing his chores, Marcus rode his bike to the park.
(B) After finishing his chores, the bike carried Marcus to the park.
(C) Marcus rode his bike, after his chores being finished, to the park.
(D) To the park after chores was where Marcus rode his bike.
58. Which of these sentences expresses the idea most clearly?
(A) Barking loudly, Elena chased the dog down the street.
(B) Elena, barking loudly, chased the dog down the street.
(C) Elena chased the dog, which was barking loudly, down the street.
(D) Down the street the dog chased barking loudly by Elena was.
59. Choose the word that best joins the thoughts. "Dominic studied the flash cards all week; _______, he still felt nervous before the test."
(A) therefore
(B) for instance
(C) meanwhile
(D) nevertheless
60. Choose the word that best joins the thoughts. "Aisha enjoys many outdoor hobbies; _______, she goes kayaking and hikes on weekend mornings."
(A) however
(B) for example
(C) otherwise
(D) in contrast
Answer Key
Step-by-step explanations for every question are available in the online simulator after completing the test.