Printable version — Practice Test 7
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Practice Test 7
298 questions · 5 separately timed sections. Time each section strictly, as shown at the start of each section.
Section 1: Verbal Skills
60 questions — Time limit: 16 minutes
Choose the word that means the same or about the same as the underlined word.
1. Irk most nearly means
(A) postpone
(B) annoy
(C) praise
(D) gather
2. Brittle most nearly means
(A) smooth
(B) flexible
(C) heavy
(D) breakable
3. Dismal most nearly means
(A) gloomy
(B) cheerful
(C) sudden
(D) ordinary
4. Docile most nearly means
(A) obedient
(B) clever
(C) wild
(D) curious
5. Boisterous most nearly means
(A) gentle
(B) tidy
(C) rowdy
(D) calm
6. Liberate most nearly means
(A) capture
(B) release
(C) punish
(D) hide
7. Punctual most nearly means
(A) polite
(B) careful
(C) lazy
(D) prompt
8. Trivial most nearly means
(A) urgent
(B) obvious
(C) unimportant
(D) difficult
9. Murky most nearly means
(A) clear
(B) shallow
(C) cloudy
(D) frozen
10. Linger most nearly means
(A) remain
(B) hurry
(C) vanish
(D) depart
11. Wither most nearly means
(A) bloom
(B) shrivel
(C) spread
(D) sprout
12. Hoard most nearly means
(A) scatter
(B) donate
(C) waste
(D) accumulate
13. Quell most nearly means
(A) encourage
(B) suppress
(C) reveal
(D) ignore
14. Meddle most nearly means
(A) interfere
(B) assist
(C) observe
(D) withdraw
15. Vigor most nearly means
(A) weakness
(B) calmness
(C) energy
(D) illness
Choose the word that means the opposite of the word in capital letters.
16. FEROCIOUS means the opposite of
(A) savage
(B) fierce
(C) gentle
(D) brutal
17. CONDEMN means the opposite of
(A) praise
(B) blame
(C) accuse
(D) punish
18. RETREAT means the opposite of
(A) withdraw
(B) advance
(C) surrender
(D) flee
19. ARROGANT means the opposite of
(A) boastful
(B) proud
(C) selfish
(D) modest
20. TRIUMPH means the opposite of
(A) victory
(B) defeat
(C) parade
(D) success
21. BARREN means the opposite of
(A) fertile
(B) empty
(C) bare
(D) desolate
22. PROVOKE means the opposite of
(A) annoy
(B) irritate
(C) disturb
(D) soothe
23. DEFIANT means the opposite of
(A) rebellious
(B) bold
(C) obedient
(D) stubborn
24. VAGUE means the opposite of
(A) unclear
(B) precise
(C) dim
(D) hazy
Choose the word that best completes the analogy.
25. Whistle is to referee as baton is to
(A) orchestra
(B) music
(C) conductor
(D) stage
26. Wing is to airplane as hull is to
(A) ship
(B) sail
(C) deck
(D) ocean
27. Victory is to defeat as praise is to
(A) applause
(B) reward
(C) cheer
(D) criticism
28. Smart is to clever as wealthy is to
(A) poor
(B) rich
(C) greedy
(D) powerful
29. Breeze is to gale as drizzle is to
(A) mist
(B) cloud
(C) puddle
(D) downpour
30. Ring is to gold as statue is to
(A) pedestal
(B) marble
(C) museum
(D) sculptor
31. Spider is to web as beaver is to
(A) dam
(B) river
(C) fur
(D) pond
32. Barometer is to pressure as clock is to
(A) storm
(B) hour
(C) time
(D) wall
33. Oven is to bake as freezer is to
(A) kitchen
(B) frost
(C) ice
(D) freeze
34. Joke is to laughter as tragedy is to
(A) comedy
(B) tears
(C) stage
(D) actor
Choose the word that does not belong with the others.
35. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) frog
(B) lizard
(C) salamander
(D) toad
36. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) cinnamon
(B) nutmeg
(C) celery
(D) cloves
37. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) stapler
(B) rake
(C) hoe
(D) trowel
38. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) wheelbarrow
(B) bus
(C) subway
(D) tram
39. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) waltz
(B) tango
(C) salsa
(D) cartwheel
40. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) Italian
(B) Antarctica
(C) Korean
(D) Norwegian
41. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) brownie
(B) pudding
(C) omelet
(D) tart
42. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) radiant
(B) luminous
(C) brilliant
(D) murky
43. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) platter
(B) mug
(C) goblet
(D) tumbler
44. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) teacher
(B) principal
(C) student
(D) custodian
45. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) bark
(B) gallop
(C) bleat
(D) quack
46. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) baguette
(B) roll
(C) bun
(D) waffle
47. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) chisel
(B) plane
(C) level
(D) colander
48. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) blizzard
(B) comet
(C) planet
(D) asteroid
49. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) hurl
(B) fling
(C) catch
(D) toss
50. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) elderly
(B) narrow
(C) ancient
(D) aged
If the first two statements are true, decide whether the third statement is true, false, or uncertain.
51. A ferry ticket costs more than a bus ticket. A bus ticket costs more than a subway ticket. A ferry ticket costs more than a subway ticket. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
52. Grandma's chili is spicier than the salsa. Grandma's chili is spicier than the curry. The salsa is spicier than the curry. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
53. Diego jumped higher than Mateo. Mateo jumped higher than Sofia. Sofia jumped higher than Diego. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
54. Every dancer in the spring recital wears a blue costume. Talia is a dancer in the spring recital. Talia wears a blue costume. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
55. The tulips bloomed earlier than the daisies. The tulips bloomed earlier than the roses. The daisies bloomed earlier than the roses. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
56. No goldfish in the tank has stripes. The fish named Pepper has stripes. Pepper is a goldfish in the tank. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
57. A bag of rice weighs the same as a bag of beans. A bag of beans weighs less than a bag of flour. A bag of rice weighs less than a bag of flour. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
58. The morning train arrives before the noon train. The noon train arrives before the evening train. The evening train arrives before the morning train. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
59. All of the violins in the orchestra are made of maple. Some of the instruments made of maple are very old. Some of the violins in the orchestra are very old. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
60. Nadia scored more points than Kofi in the game. Kofi scored more points than Elena. Nadia scored more points than Elena. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
Section 2: Quantitative Skills
52 questions — Time limit: 30 minutes
Choose the number that should come next (or that fits the blank) in the series.
1. Look at this series: 6, 19, 32, 45, 58, ... What number should come next?
(A) 69
(B) 70
(C) 71
(D) 84
2. Look at this series: 94, 87, 80, 73, ... What number should come next?
(A) 66
(B) 67
(C) 65
(D) 63
3. Look at this series: 9, 18, 36, 72, ... What number should come next?
(A) 108
(B) 96
(C) 120
(D) 144
4. Look at this series: 1, 5, 25, 125, ... What number should come next?
(A) 250
(B) 625
(C) 150
(D) 500
5. Look at this series: 36, 49, 64, 81, ... What number should come next?
(A) 100
(B) 98
(C) 96
(D) 99
6. Look at this series: 3, 5, 9, 15, 23, ... What number should come next?
(A) 31
(B) 32
(C) 33
(D) 35
7. Look at this series: 4, 7, 12, 19, 28, ... What number should come next?
(A) 37
(B) 38
(C) 41
(D) 39
8. Look at this series: 4, 25, 8, 22, 12, 19, ... What number should come next?
(A) 14
(B) 16
(C) 20
(D) 23
9. Look at this series: 2, 5, 7, 12, 19, ... What number should come next?
(A) 26
(B) 29
(C) 31
(D) 24
10. Look at this series: 1, 7, 19, 43, ... What number should come next?
(A) 91
(B) 86
(C) 96
(D) 67
11. Look at this series: 64, 32, __, 8, 4. What number should fill the blank?
(A) 24
(B) 20
(C) 12
(D) 16
12. Look at this series: 3, 6, 8, 16, 18, 36, ... What number should come next?
(A) 72
(B) 38
(C) 40
(D) 54
13. Look at this series: 4, 10, 9, 15, 14, 20, ... What number should come next?
(A) 19
(B) 26
(C) 21
(D) 14
14. Look at this series: 5, 6, 8, 12, 20, ... What number should come next?
(A) 28
(B) 32
(C) 36
(D) 40
15. Look at this series: 1/8, 1/4, 3/8, 1/2, ... What number should come next?
(A) 3/4
(B) 5/8
(C) 7/8
(D) 9/16
16. Look at this series: 0.4, 0.55, 0.7, 0.85, ... What number should come next?
(A) 0.95
(B) 1.05
(C) 1.15
(D) 1
17. Look at this series: 3, 10, 29, 66, ... What number should come next?
(A) 127
(B) 125
(C) 128
(D) 130
18. Look at this series: 3, 12, __, 192, 768. What number should fill the blank?
(A) 36
(B) 24
(C) 48
(D) 96
Examine the quantities and choose the best answer.
19. (a) the perimeter of a regular pentagon with sides of 8 centimeters (b) the perimeter of a rectangle that is 13 centimeters long and 7 centimeters wide (c) the perimeter of a regular octagon with sides of 6 centimeters
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (c) is less than (a)
(C) (a) and (b) are equal, and each is less than (c)
(D) (b) is greater than (c)
20. (a) 25% of 64 (b) 1/4 of 64 (c) 0.2 × 80
(A) (a) is greater than (b)
(B) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(C) (c) is less than (a) and (b)
(D) (b) is greater than (c)
21. (a) the area of a triangle with a base of 9 inches and a height of 8 inches (b) the area of a rectangle that is 10 inches long and 4 inches wide (c) the area of a square with sides of 7 inches
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (a) is greater than (c)
(C) (b) is greater than (c)
(D) (a) is less than (b), and (b) is less than (c)
22. (a) the number of faces of a triangular prism (b) the number of edges of a triangular prism (c) the number of vertices of a triangular prism
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (b) is less than (c)
(C) (a) is greater than (b)
(D) (a) is less than (c), and (c) is less than (b)
23. (a) 2⁵ (b) 6² (c) 4 × 8
(A) (a) and (c) are equal, and each is less than (b)
(B) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(C) (b) is less than (a)
(D) (a) is greater than (b)
24. (a) the measure of each interior angle of a regular pentagon (b) the measure of each interior angle of a regular hexagon (c) the number of degrees in a right angle
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (c) is less than (a), and (a) is less than (b)
(C) (b) is less than (c)
(D) (a) is greater than (b)
25. (a) (2 + 6) × 5 (b) 2 + 6 × 5 (c) 2 × 6 + 5
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (b) is less than (c)
(C) (a) is greater than (b), and (b) is greater than (c)
(D) (a) is less than (c)
26. (a) 8 × 7 (b) 180 ÷ 3 (c) 49 + 6
(A) (a) is greater than (c) and less than (b)
(B) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(C) (b) is less than (a)
(D) (c) is greater than (a)
27. (a) the radius of a circle with a diameter of 22 inches (b) the length of one side of a square with a perimeter of 44 inches (c) the length of one side of an equilateral triangle with a perimeter of 30 inches
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (c) is greater than (a)
(C) (a) is less than (b)
(D) (a) and (b) are equal, and each is greater than (c)
28. (a) 2/5 + 1/10 (b) 4/8 (c) 0.4
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (a) and (b) are equal, and each is greater than (c)
(C) (c) is greater than (a)
(D) (a) is less than (b)
29. (a) the number of degrees the minute hand of a clock turns in 15 minutes (b) the number of degrees in a right angle (c) the measure of each interior angle of a regular hexagon
(A) (a) and (b) are equal, and each is less than (c)
(B) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(C) (c) is less than (a)
(D) (a) is greater than (c)
30. (a) 20% of 45 (b) 45% of 20 (c) 1/5 of 45
(A) (a) is greater than (b)
(B) (b) is less than (c)
(C) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(D) (c) is greater than (a) and (b)
31. (a) the perimeter of an equilateral triangle with sides of 14 meters (b) the perimeter of a square with sides of 11 meters (c) the perimeter of a regular hexagon with sides of 7 meters
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (b) is less than (a)
(C) (a) is greater than (c)
(D) (a) and (c) are equal, and each is less than (b)
32. (a) the average of 14, 18, and 22 (b) 3/4 of 24 (c) 0.25 × 80
(A) (a) and (b) are equal, and each is less than (c)
(B) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(C) (c) is less than (a)
(D) (a) is greater than (c)
33. (a) the measure of each interior angle of a regular octagon (b) the measure of each interior angle of a square (c) the measure of each interior angle of a regular hexagon
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (b) is less than (c), and (c) is less than (a)
(C) (a) is less than (c)
(D) (b) is greater than (a)
34. (a) 15% of 80 (b) 1/2 of 26 (c) 70 ÷ 5
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (a) is greater than (b)
(C) (c) is less than (a)
(D) (a) is less than (b), and (b) is less than (c)
35. (a) the measure of each angle of an equilateral triangle (b) one-third of the number of degrees in a straight angle (c) the number of degrees the minute hand of a clock turns in 10 minutes
(A) (a) is greater than (b)
(B) (b) is less than (c)
(C) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(D) (c) is greater than (a)
Work each problem and choose the best answer.
36. What number is 7 more than 30% of 80?
(A) 17
(B) 24
(C) 31
(D) 39
37. What number is 1/4 of 48, decreased by 5?
(A) 7
(B) 12
(C) 17
(D) 43
38. What is the product of 9 and 6 added to the quotient of 56 and 8?
(A) 7
(B) 47
(C) 54
(D) 61
39. A number is multiplied by 6, and the result is increased by 9 to give 51. What is the number?
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 10
(D) 42
40. What number is 12 more than the square of 8?
(A) 16
(B) 52
(C) 64
(D) 76
41. What number is 4 less than the quotient of 72 and 8?
(A) 5
(B) 9
(C) 13
(D) 68
42. What number is 6 more than 40% of 50?
(A) 14
(B) 20
(C) 26
(D) 36
43. What number is 5 times the difference between 23 and 15?
(A) 8
(B) 40
(C) 100
(D) 190
44. What number is 10% of 90, decreased by 3?
(A) 6
(B) 9
(C) 12
(D) 87
45. What number is 3 times the sum of 14 and 9?
(A) 23
(B) 42
(C) 51
(D) 69
46. What is 30% of 50 added to 25% of 20?
(A) 5
(B) 15
(C) 20
(D) 35
47. What number is 5 less than the square of 7?
(A) 14
(B) 44
(C) 49
(D) 54
48. The sum of two numbers is 46, and their difference is 12. What is the larger number?
(A) 6
(B) 17
(C) 23
(D) 29
49. What is one half of the difference between 50 and 22?
(A) 14
(B) 28
(C) 36
(D) 72
50. What is 3/7 of the sum of 20 and 22?
(A) 6
(B) 12
(C) 18
(D) 42
51. What is 20% of 75, increased by 4?
(A) 15
(B) 19
(C) 34
(D) 79
52. What number is 9 more than the product of 6 and 8?
(A) 23
(B) 39
(C) 48
(D) 57
Section 3: Reading
62 questions — Time limit: 25 minutes
Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
1. Which sentence best states the main idea of the passage?
(A) A student's best friend paints costumes for the eighth-grade play.
(B) Practicing in front of a mirror is the best way to prepare for a play.
(C) By facing the school play instead of avoiding it, the narrator learns to push through stage fright.
(D) Ms. Alvarez chooses the wrong student to play the lead inventor.
2. According to the passage, which role was the narrator chosen to play?
(A) The inventor
(B) The clockmaker's daughter
(C) A narrator in the back row
(D) The stage manager
3. What kind of part had the narrator hoped to get?
(A) The starring role under the lights
(B) A job painting the stage sets
(C) No part in the play at all
(D) A small part with only a few lines
4. As used in the passage, the word dreaded most nearly means
(A) enjoyed
(B) feared
(C) attended
(D) forgot
5. What advice does Priya give the narrator on opening night?
(A) To picture the whole audience clearly
(B) To speak to one person at a time
(C) To read the lines from a hidden note
(D) To ask Ms. Alvarez for a smaller part
6. The narrator says that a mirror 'never coughs, never whispers, never stares.' This comparison mainly suggests that
(A) practicing alone could not fully prepare the narrator for a live audience
(B) the bathroom mirror was cracked and hard to use
(C) the narrator preferred rehearsing without any help
(D) real audiences are usually silent and polite
7. How do the narrator's feelings change from the beginning of the passage to the end?
(A) From pride to embarrassment
(B) From boredom to excitement
(C) From fearful dread to shaky pride
(D) From anger to calm
8. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
(A) How to Build a Cardboard Clock
(B) Ms. Alvarez's Favorite Play
(C) The Best Actor in the Eighth Grade
(D) Walking Through the Fear
9. Which sentence best states the main idea of the passage?
(A) Volcanoes form mainly where Earth's moving plates meet, and they come in different shapes and behaviors.
(B) The Hawaiian Islands are the most dangerous volcanoes on Earth.
(C) Magma and lava are two completely unrelated kinds of rock.
(D) Scientists can now predict every eruption before it happens.
10. According to the passage, about how fast do the tectonic plates move?
(A) Several meters every day
(B) Hundreds of miles per year
(C) They do not move at all
(D) A few centimeters each year, about as fast as fingernails grow
11. According to the passage, what is the difference between magma and lava?
(A) Magma is solid rock, while lava is always liquid metal.
(B) Magma erupts from shield volcanoes, and lava erupts from stratovolcanoes.
(C) Magma is melted rock underground, and it is called lava once it reaches the surface.
(D) Magma is found only in Hawaii, while lava is found everywhere else.
12. How does the passage describe a stratovolcano?
(A) A tall, steep, cone-shaped volcano that can erupt violently
(B) A broad, gently sloping volcano built from runny lava
(C) A volcano that never actually erupts
(D) A deep crack where two plates pull apart
13. As used in the passage, the word fertile most nearly means
(A) frozen
(B) good for growing crops
(C) rocky and bare
(D) dangerous to touch
14. Based on the passage, why are the volcanoes of the Hawaiian Islands unusual?
(A) They are the tallest stratovolcanoes in the world.
(B) They erupt only once every million years.
(C) They never produce any lava.
(D) They sit over a hot spot far from the edges of any plate.
15. The author's main purpose in this passage is to
(A) persuade readers to move away from volcanoes
(B) tell an exciting story about one famous eruption
(C) explain how volcanoes form and why they differ
(D) warn scientists to stop studying the Earth
16. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
(A) The History of the Hawaiian Islands
(B) Volcanoes: Built by a Restless Earth
(C) How to Grow Crops in Ash
(D) The Fastest Plates on the Planet
17. Which sentence best states the main idea of the passage?
(A) Johannes Gutenberg became one of the richest men in Europe.
(B) Monks enjoyed copying Bibles by hand more than using machines.
(C) The Gutenberg Bible was the only book ever printed in Mainz.
(D) Gutenberg's printing press with movable type made books faster and cheaper to produce and helped spread learning.
18. According to the passage, how were most books in Europe made before the middle of the 1400s?
(A) They were carved into single blocks of wood.
(B) They were copied out by hand, often by monks.
(C) They were printed with small metal letters.
(D) They were brought by ship from other continents.
19. What important advantage did Gutenberg's movable type offer?
(A) The metal letters could be taken apart and reused to set new pages.
(B) The letters were carved fresh for every single page.
(C) The press could print only one copy of each book.
(D) The letters were made of wood so they never wore out.
20. As used in the passage, the word magnificent most nearly means
(A) tiny
(B) ordinary
(C) splendid and impressive
(D) damaged
21. According to the passage, what did Gutenberg produce around 1455?
(A) A magnificent edition of the Bible
(B) The first newspaper in Europe
(C) A machine for copying wood carvings
(D) A school for training scribes
22. Based on the passage, what happened as printed books became cheaper and more common?
(A) Fewer people bothered to learn how to read.
(B) The church banned all printing presses.
(C) Books became rare and expensive again.
(D) More people learned to read, and new ideas spread farther and faster.
23. The author's attitude toward Gutenberg's invention can best be described as
(A) doubtful
(B) admiring
(C) disappointed
(D) uninterested
24. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
(A) The Life Story of a Medieval Monk
(B) How to Carve Letters from Wood
(C) Gutenberg and the Printing Revolution
(D) The Richest Inventor in History
25. Which sentence best states the main idea of the passage?
(A) Amelia Earhart always preferred flying as a passenger rather than as a pilot.
(B) The mystery of Amelia Earhart's disappearance has finally been solved.
(C) Amelia Earhart overcame early doubts to become a record-setting pilot whose final flight remains a mystery.
(D) Airplanes built in the 1920s and 1930s were far too dangerous for ordinary people to fly.
26. According to the passage, Amelia Earhart was born in
(A) Atchison, Kansas, in 1897
(B) Los Angeles, California, in 1920
(C) Newfoundland, Canada, in 1897
(D) Northern Ireland, in 1932
27. The passage states that during her 1928 flight across the Atlantic, Earhart
(A) flew the airplane entirely by herself
(B) became the first person ever to cross the ocean by air
(C) was forced to land in a field in Ireland
(D) rode as a passenger while two men flew the plane
28. What made Earhart's 1932 flight historic, according to the passage?
(A) She was the first person to fly all the way around the world.
(B) She was the first woman to fly solo across the Atlantic Ocean.
(C) She was the first pilot to fly from Kansas to California.
(D) She was the first woman ever to ride in an airplane.
29. The passage suggests that Earhart called herself "just baggage" on the 1928 flight because she
(A) had not actually flown the plane and wanted to make the crossing herself
(B) was carrying heavy luggage that slowed the airplane down
(C) felt she did not really deserve to be famous
(D) was afraid to cross the ocean by airplane ever again
30. As used in the passage, the word "vanished" most nearly means
(A) landed
(B) returned
(C) exploded
(D) disappeared
31. The author's main purpose in the passage is to
(A) teach readers how to fly an airplane safely
(B) argue that Earhart's disappearance was her own fault
(C) tell the story of Amelia Earhart's life and achievements
(D) compare Earhart with other famous pilots of her time
32. Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
(A) A Quiet Childhood in Kansas
(B) Amelia Earhart: A Pioneer of the Skies
(C) How Airplanes Changed the Whole World
(D) The Many Dangers of Flying Alone
33. Which sentence best states the main idea of the passage?
(A) Yellowstone is by far the most beautiful national park in the entire United States.
(B) National parks protect natural and historic treasures, and caring for them is a job shared by rangers and visitors.
(C) Park rangers are the only people who are responsible for keeping national parks safe.
(D) National parks were created mainly to give families a convenient place to camp.
34. According to the passage, the world's first national park was
(A) created only after a warming climate began to threaten the land
(B) set aside by several different countries working together
(C) a park created mainly to protect ancient cliff dwellings
(D) Yellowstone, created in the United States in 1872
35. According to the passage, national parks protect all of the following EXCEPT
(A) shopping centers built for visitors
(B) forests, rivers, and wetlands
(C) animals such as bison, bears, and eagles
(D) human history such as ancient cliff dwellings
36. According to the passage, visitors are expected to help protect parks by
(A) fighting wildfires alongside the park rangers
(B) studying the plants and animals that live there
(C) staying on marked trails and carrying out their trash
(D) building new trails deeper into the wilderness
37. It can be inferred from the passage that, without national parks, many spectacular landscapes would likely have been
(A) left completely untouched by people
(B) turned into other kinds of protected areas
(C) visited by even larger crowds of tourists
(D) mined, logged, or fenced off until little was left
38. As used in the passage, the word "spectacular" most nearly means
(A) impressive
(B) crowded
(C) ordinary
(D) dangerous
39. The author's main purpose in the passage is to
(A) warn readers to stay away from crowded national parks
(B) describe a single family's visit to Yellowstone National Park
(C) explain why national parks exist and how people can help protect them
(D) convince readers that they should become park rangers
40. Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
(A) The Complete Story of Yellowstone
(B) National Parks: Protecting Wild Places for Everyone
(C) How to Get a Job as a Park Ranger
(D) The Most Dangerous Trails in America
Choose the word that means the same or about the same as the underlined word.
41. a gregarious host
(A) aloof
(B) wealthy
(C) sociable
(D) cautious
42. a period of turmoil
(A) chaos
(B) calm
(C) growth
(D) boredom
43. to deter trespassers
(A) invite
(B) assist
(C) reward
(D) discourage
44. a laconic answer
(A) angry
(B) brief
(C) honest
(D) loud
45. the zenith of her fame
(A) start
(B) decline
(C) peak
(D) cost
46. to relish a challenge
(A) enjoy
(B) dread
(C) avoid
(D) forget
47. an ominous cloud
(A) fluffy
(B) distant
(C) colorful
(D) threatening
48. a welcome respite from work
(A) reward
(B) report
(C) journey
(D) break
49. to brandish a sword
(A) sharpen
(B) wave
(C) hide
(D) drop
50. a fastidious eater
(A) fussy
(B) careless
(C) hungry
(D) cheerful
51. a throng of tourists
(A) handful
(B) trickle
(C) crowd
(D) parade
52. to meander through the park
(A) sprint
(B) stumble
(C) march
(D) wander
53. an ornate frame
(A) plain
(B) elaborate
(C) broken
(D) modern
54. without a single qualm
(A) doubt
(B) thrill
(C) plan
(D) sound
55. to taunt an opponent
(A) praise
(B) assist
(C) mock
(D) ignore
56. a resilient athlete
(A) famous
(B) injured
(C) lazy
(D) tough
57. attacked the meal with gusto
(A) enthusiasm
(B) hesitation
(C) sadness
(D) caution
58. to devour a meal
(A) prepare
(B) gobble
(C) order
(D) share
59. a dubious excuse
(A) valid
(B) honest
(C) clever
(D) questionable
60. a bad omen
(A) habit
(B) excuse
(C) sign
(D) memory
61. to topple the statue
(A) overturn
(B) admire
(C) polish
(D) raise
62. a destitute family
(A) wealthy
(B) penniless
(C) cheerful
(D) large
Section 4: Mathematics
64 questions — Time limit: 45 minutes
Choose the best answer.
1. In the number 3,749,205, which digit is in the hundred-thousands place?
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 7
(D) 9
2. In the decimal 4.617, the digit 1 is in which place?
(A) hundredths
(B) tenths
(C) thousandths
(D) ones
3. What is 48,617 rounded to the nearest ten-thousand?
(A) 50,000
(B) 40,000
(C) 48,000
(D) 49,000
4. Which is the best estimate of 297 × 41?
(A) 1,200
(B) 120,000
(C) 8,000
(D) 12,000
5. Which of the following numbers is prime?
(A) 87
(B) 89
(C) 91
(D) 93
6. Which of the following numbers is divisible by 4?
(A) 314
(B) 526
(C) 728
(D) 642
7. What is the greatest common factor of 16 and 40?
(A) 4
(B) 80
(C) 8
(D) 2
8. What is the least common multiple of 6 and 9?
(A) 18
(B) 3
(C) 54
(D) 36
9. The expression 2⁵ has a value of
(A) 10
(B) 25
(C) 16
(D) 32
10. Between which two consecutive whole numbers does √40 lie?
(A) 5 and 6
(B) 6 and 7
(C) 7 and 8
(D) 19 and 20
11. Which of the following numbers is a perfect cube?
(A) 100
(B) 125
(C) 115
(D) 150
12. The product of an odd number and an even number is always
(A) even
(B) odd
(C) prime
(D) a multiple of 4
13. Which equation is an example of the distributive property?
(A) 4 × 6 = 6 × 4
(B) (4 × 6) × 2 = 4 × (6 × 2)
(C) 4 + 0 = 4
(D) 4 × (6 + 2) = 4 × 6 + 4 × 2
14. On a number line, which of these numbers lies farthest to the left?
(A) −2
(B) 3
(C) −7
(D) −5
15. Which fraction is equivalent to the decimal 0.4?
(A) 2/5
(B) 1/4
(C) 4/5
(D) 1/40
16. Which decimal is equal to 8%?
(A) 0.8
(B) 0.08
(C) 8.0
(D) 0.008
17. Which of the following decimals is closest in value to 1?
(A) 0.9
(B) 0.89
(C) 0.91
(D) 0.98
18. Two angles whose measures add up to 90° are called
(A) supplementary
(B) vertical
(C) adjacent
(D) complementary
19. A triangle that contains one angle measuring exactly 90° is called
(A) an acute triangle
(B) an equilateral triangle
(C) a right triangle
(D) an obtuse triangle
20. A polygon that has exactly eight sides is called
(A) a hexagon
(B) an octagon
(C) a pentagon
(D) a decagon
21. The distance around the outside of a circle is called its
(A) circumference
(B) diameter
(C) radius
(D) area
22. Which customary unit is most appropriate for measuring the amount of water a bathtub holds?
(A) cups
(B) fluid ounces
(C) gallons
(D) pints
23. In the data set 3, 7, 7, 7, 9, 12, which value is the mode?
(A) 3
(B) 9
(C) 12
(D) 7
24. What is the probability of an event that is impossible?
(A) 1
(B) 0
(C) 1/2
(D) −1
Solve each problem and choose the best answer.
25. The Palace Theater has 480 seats. On opening night, 5/8 of the seats were filled. How many seats were filled?
(A) 180
(B) 60
(C) 300
(D) 240
26. A farmer at the Riverbend Farmers Market sells 2/3 of a crate of apples in the morning and 1/6 of the crate in the afternoon. What fraction of the crate does she sell in all?
(A) 5/6
(B) 1/3
(C) 3/4
(D) 1/6
27. At the Summit rock-climbing gym, a climber makes 4 complete round trips up and back down a route that is 14.5 meters tall. What is the total vertical distance she travels?
(A) 58 meters
(B) 29 meters
(C) 145 meters
(D) 116 meters
28. A farmer has 5/6 of a bushel of green beans and packs them into bags that each hold 1/12 of a bushel. How many bags can she fill?
(A) 5/72
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 8
29. A ticket to the Palace Theater normally costs $24. Seniors receive a 25% discount. What does a senior pay for a ticket?
(A) $6.00
(B) $18.00
(C) $19.20
(D) $30.00
30. A climbing harness at the Summit gym costs $45.00. It is marked 20% off, and then a 6% sales tax is added to the sale price. What is the total cost?
(A) $38.16
(B) $36.00
(C) $38.70
(D) $47.70
31. At the Riverbend Farmers Market, a shopper's basket comes to $40.00 before tax. A 7% sales tax is added. What is the total with tax?
(A) $2.80
(B) $47.00
(C) $43.20
(D) $42.80
32. The Summit gym rents climbing shoes. After a 10% weekday discount, a rental costs $27. What is the regular price of the rental?
(A) $29.70
(B) $24.30
(C) $37.00
(D) $30.00
33. At a school play, the ratio of adult tickets to student tickets sold was 3 to 5. If 400 tickets were sold in all, how many were student tickets?
(A) 150
(B) 80
(C) 250
(D) 200
34. A farm stand sells 3 pounds of peaches for $7.50. At that rate, how much do 8 pounds of peaches cost?
(A) $20.00
(B) $22.50
(C) $60.00
(D) $17.50
35. The Summit gym mixes climbing chalk and drying agent in a ratio of 7 to 2 by weight. If a batch uses 63 ounces of chalk, how many ounces of drying agent are needed?
(A) 9
(B) 18
(C) 45
(D) 126
36. Solve for x: 5x - 8 = 32
(A) 4.8
(B) 40
(C) 8
(D) 6
37. The Summit gym charges a one-time $20 registration fee plus $5 for each class. Maya paid $100 in all. How many classes did she sign up for?
(A) 16
(B) 24
(C) 20
(D) 12
38. Seven more than twice a number is 41. What is the number?
(A) 24
(B) 34
(C) 20
(D) 17
39. Solve for x: x/3 - 4 = 6
(A) 22
(B) 30
(C) 3 1/3
(D) 18
40. The Summit gym counted the number of climbers each day for five days: 40, 55, 48, 40, and 67. What is the mean number of climbers per day?
(A) 48
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 27
41. A vendor's daily sales at the farmers market over five days were $120, $95, $140, $110, and $130. What is the median of these amounts?
(A) $119
(B) $45
(C) $140
(D) $120
42. The tallest wall at the Summit rock-climbing gym is 45 feet tall. How many yards tall is it?
(A) 15 yards
(B) 135 yards
(C) 540 yards
(D) 5 yards
43. A vendor at the farmers market has 5 gallons of apple cider. How many quarts of cider is that?
(A) 40 quarts
(B) 20 quarts
(C) 10 quarts
(D) 1 1/4 quarts
44. The Palace Theater puts $1,500 of its ticket earnings into an account that pays 4% simple interest per year. How much interest does it earn in 3 years?
(A) $60
(B) $1,680
(C) $180
(D) $120
45. A rectangular tabletop is 60 inches long and 36 inches wide. A rectangular notch measuring 12 inches by 8 inches is cut out of one corner. What is the area of the tabletop that remains?
(A) 2,160 square inches
(B) 2,064 square inches
(C) 1,968 square inches
(D) 2,256 square inches
46. In a triangle, two of the angles measure 47° and 68°. What is the measure of the third angle?
(A) 115°
(B) 75°
(C) 55°
(D) 65°
47. A cyclist rides 54 miles in 3 hours at a steady speed. What is the cyclist's average speed?
(A) 18 miles per hour
(B) 27 miles per hour
(C) 51 miles per hour
(D) 162 miles per hour
48. What is the value of 2⁵ + 3³?
(A) 19
(B) 41
(C) 59
(D) 65
49. A jacket that regularly costs $80 is on sale for 25% off. A sales tax of 8% is then added to the sale price. What is the total cost?
(A) $66.40
(B) $86.40
(C) $64.80
(D) $60.00
50. A storage box shaped like a rectangular prism is 14 inches long, 9 inches wide, and 5 inches high. What is its volume?
(A) 630 cubic inches
(B) 126 cubic inches
(C) 28 cubic inches
(D) 315 cubic inches
51. A bag contains 5 red marbles, 3 blue marbles, and 4 green marbles. If one marble is drawn at random, what is the probability that it is red?
(A) 5/7
(B) 7/12
(C) 1/12
(D) 5/12
52. A rectangular swimming pool is 25 meters long and 12 meters wide. A rope is stretched all the way around the edge of the pool. How long is the rope?
(A) 300 meters
(B) 74 meters
(C) 37 meters
(D) 148 meters
53. Two angles are complementary. If one of the angles measures 37°, what is the measure of the other angle?
(A) 53°
(B) 143°
(C) 63°
(D) 47°
54. A car travels at a constant speed of 55 miles per hour for 4 hours. How far does it travel?
(A) 59 miles
(B) 13.75 miles
(C) 110 miles
(D) 220 miles
55. What is the value of −7 − (−4) + (−5)?
(A) 2
(B) −8
(C) −16
(D) 8
56. Diego buys 3 notebooks that cost $2.45 each and a pen that costs $1.60. If he pays with a $10 bill, how much change should he receive?
(A) $2.65
(B) $1.05
(C) $5.95
(D) $1.15
57. The front of a tent is shaped like a rectangle 8 feet wide and 5 feet tall, topped by a triangle with a base of 8 feet and a height of 3 feet. What is the total area of the front of the tent?
(A) 64 square feet
(B) 40 square feet
(C) 52 square feet
(D) 60 square feet
58. A bin shaped like a cube has edges that are 7 inches long. What is its volume?
(A) 343 cubic inches
(B) 49 cubic inches
(C) 21 cubic inches
(D) 294 cubic inches
59. The three angles of a triangle are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5. What is the measure of the largest angle?
(A) 36°
(B) 54°
(C) 100°
(D) 90°
60. A standard number cube has faces numbered 1 through 6. If it is rolled once, what is the probability of rolling a number greater than 4?
(A) 1/2
(B) 2/3
(C) 1/3
(D) 1/6
61. Two towns are 210 miles apart. A bus travels between them at an average speed of 60 miles per hour. How long does the trip take?
(A) 3 hours 50 minutes
(B) 4 hours
(C) 2 hours 30 minutes
(D) 3 hours 30 minutes
62. What is the value of (−4)² − 3³?
(A) −11
(B) 43
(C) −43
(D) 11
63. Maria earns $12 per hour babysitting. She works 6 hours on Saturday and 4.5 hours on Sunday, and then she buys a book for $18.75. How much of her earnings does she have left?
(A) $126.00
(B) $107.25
(C) $144.75
(D) $53.25
64. A rectangle has an area of 96 square centimeters and a length of 12 centimeters. What is its perimeter?
(A) 20 cm
(B) 96 cm
(C) 40 cm
(D) 44 cm
Section 5: Language
60 questions — Time limit: 25 minutes
Look for errors in punctuation, capitalization, or usage. If there is no error, choose (D).
1. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Our drama teacher chose a mystery play for the fall show.
(B) The cast of eager students were nervous on opening night.
(C) The actors memorized their lines before the first rehearsal.
(D) No mistakes.
2. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The narrators voice echoed across the auditorium.
(B) Two students painted the backdrop for the forest scene.
(C) Mr. Dawson reminded us to speak loudly and clearly.
(D) No mistakes.
3. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The curtain rose slowly as the audience grew quiet.
(B) Backstage, the crew arranged the props for the first act.
(C) We rehearsed the final scene until it felt just right.
(D) No mistakes.
4. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The lights dimmed, the actors took their places on the stage.
(B) A soft melody played while the dancers entered from the left.
(C) Everyone in the audience clapped after the opening number.
(D) No mistakes.
5. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) We laced up our boots before the long climb began.
(B) The trail wound through a thick forest of tall pines.
(C) Our group hiked part of the appalachian trail last summer.
(D) No mistakes.
6. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The guide handed each of us a bottle of water.
(B) We spotted a deer standing perfectly still near the path.
(C) Dad and me reached the summit before anyone else.
(D) No mistakes.
7. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The morning air felt cool and crisp on our faces.
(B) Last week we hike all the way to the hidden waterfall.
(C) We stopped for lunch beside a bubbling mountain stream.
(D) No mistakes.
8. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The steep path made our legs ache by afternoon.
(B) We refilled our water bottles at the ranger station.
(C) From the top, we could see the whole valley below.
(D) No mistakes.
9. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The results of our experiment was surprising to the whole class.
(B) Nadia recorded the temperature every ten minutes.
(C) We tested three different soils in identical pots.
(D) No mistakes.
10. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Our teacher explained how plants make their own food.
(B) Tomorrow we presented our findings to the whole class.
(C) The chart on the wall showed our data clearly.
(D) No mistakes.
11. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) We glued the labels onto each glass jar.
(B) The mold grew faster in the warm, dark cabinet.
(C) The plant in the sunlight lost it's leaves the slowest.
(D) No mistakes.
12. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Each student wrote a short summary of the findings.
(B) The judges asked us thoughtful questions about our method.
(C) Our poster won second place at the science fair.
(D) No mistakes.
13. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Colorful balloons floated above the kitchen table.
(B) My cousins arrived early to help hang the decorations.
(C) The cake was chocolate everyone wanted a corner piece.
(D) No mistakes.
14. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Grandma baked a huge cake for my sister and I.
(B) We played games in the backyard until it got dark.
(C) We sang loudly as she blew out all the candles.
(D) No mistakes.
15. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) We hung a bright banner across the doorway.
(B) We held the party on the last friday of the month.
(C) My aunt brought paper hats for all the guests.
(D) No mistakes.
16. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The guests wrote kind messages in a small notebook.
(B) We served lemonade and pizza on paper plates.
(C) Everyone laughed at the clown's silly juggling tricks.
(D) No mistakes.
17. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Our team practiced passing drills before the big match.
(B) Neither of the goalies were expecting such a fast shot.
(C) The coach shouted encouragement from the sideline.
(D) No mistakes.
18. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The striker scored a goal in the final minute.
(B) Fans cheered loudly from the crowded bleachers.
(C) The player's ran onto the field in bright uniforms.
(D) No mistakes.
19. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The final score was tied after the first half.
(B) Our goalie made an amazing save near the end.
(C) We shook hands with the other team after the match.
(D) No mistakes.
20. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Last weekend we score five goals against the rival school.
(B) The forward dribbled past two defenders with ease.
(C) Rain fell steadily throughout the second half.
(D) No mistakes.
21. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The museum opened a new dinosaur exhibit last weekend.
(B) Our class took a yellow bus to the entrance.
(C) Each student received a map at the front desk.
(D) No mistakes.
22. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) We spent the whole morning in the art gallery.
(B) Our field trip took us to a museum in chicago.
(C) A guard asked us not to touch the paintings.
(D) No mistakes.
23. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Several students forgot there sketchbooks on the bus.
(B) The Egyptian gallery was the most popular room.
(C) A docent explained how the pottery was made.
(D) No mistakes.
24. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The exhibit included fossils, gems, and meteorites.
(B) My favorite display showed a giant blue whale.
(C) The sign near the door read, "Please do not use flash photography".
(D) No mistakes.
25. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The band met in the music room after school.
(B) Mr. Alvarez handed out the sheet music quickly.
(C) The students tuned their instruments before starting.
(D) No mistakes.
26. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The trumpet section played louder then the flutes.
(B) We rehearsed the same measure at least ten times.
(C) The conductor tapped her baton to signal a stop.
(D) No mistakes.
27. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The new arrangement sounded bright and lively.
(B) Diego practiced his solo during the lunch break.
(C) The second verse is more slower than the first.
(D) No mistakes.
28. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The singers lined up along the front of the stage.
(B) We didn't have no time to practice the encore.
(C) The drummer counted off the beat with his sticks.
(D) No mistakes.
29. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The blizzard did not effect the team's travel plans.
(B) Thick snow covered the parked cars overnight.
(C) The plows worked steadily through the quiet streets.
(D) No mistakes.
30. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The storm dropped nearly two feet of snow by morning.
(B) Neighbors helped one another clear the sidewalks.
(C) A snowplow rumbled down our street at dawn.
(D) No mistakes.
31. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The forecast promised more than a foot of snow.
(B) My little sister built a snowman in the yard.
(C) There were less cars on the highway that morning.
(D) No mistakes.
32. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The radio warned drivers to stay off the roads.
(B) Bundle up before you go outside Marcus.
(C) A layer of ice coated the front steps.
(D) No mistakes.
33. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The stew simmered until it's broth turned golden.
(B) Dad chopped the onions into small pieces.
(C) We seasoned the chicken with pepper and thyme.
(D) No mistakes.
34. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The recipe called for two cups of flour.
(B) Mom preheated the oven to four hundred degrees.
(C) We let the bread cool on a wire rack.
(D) No mistakes.
35. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Grandma stirred the sauce with a wooden spoon.
(B) After the long meal, we wanted to lay down for a while.
(C) The salad stayed crisp inside the cold bowl.
(D) No mistakes.
36. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The kitchen smelled of garlic and warm bread.
(B) Everyone helped carry dishes to the table.
(C) When the timer finally rang we pulled out the lasagna.
(D) No mistakes.
37. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The library extended its hours during exam week.
(B) Of the two study rooms, Nadia chose the quietest one.
(C) A librarian helped us find books about volcanoes.
(D) No mistakes.
38. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The reading room had tall windows and soft chairs.
(B) We returned three books before the due date.
(C) A poster near the desk listed the weekend events.
(D) No mistakes.
39. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The library was nearly empty, we found a table right away.
(B) Rows of tall shelves held hundreds of novels.
(C) The librarian stamped the date inside each cover.
(D) No mistakes.
40. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The mystery section sat in the back corner.
(B) Owen renewed his library card at the desk.
(C) For her report she read the novel the silver compass twice.
(D) No mistakes.
Look for mistakes in spelling only.
41. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Our town's youth soccer leauge starts its season in April.
(B) The farmers loaded bales of hay onto the old red truck.
(C) Devin painted the wooden fence a bright shade of green.
(D) No mistakes.
42. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Grandma Rosa simmered the vegetable soup for nearly an hour.
(B) The new public libary offers free tutoring on weekday afternoons.
(C) The hikers followed a narrow trail up the steep hill.
(D) No mistakes.
43. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Coach Nolan reminded the team to stretch before every game.
(B) A gentle breeze carried the smell of fresh bread down the street.
(C) My older sister finally earned her driver's liscense last week.
(D) No mistakes.
44. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The chemistry teacher explained how to balance the equation.
(B) Amara wrapped the birthday present in shiny gold paper.
(C) Several sparrows gathered near the fountain in the courtyard.
(D) No mistakes.
45. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) A bolt of lightining lit up the sky during the summer storm.
(B) The bakery sells warm cinnamon rolls every Saturday morning.
(C) Theo organized his baseball cards by team and by year.
(D) No mistakes.
46. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The clerk arranged the new novels on the front display.
(B) Lucas fed the goldfish before he left for school.
(C) The couple celebrated their marraige with a party in the garden.
(D) No mistakes.
47. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The gardener trimmed the rose bushes along the walkway.
(B) The nurse measured out the correct dose of medecine for the patient.
(C) Zara sketched the distant mountains from her bedroom window.
(D) No mistakes.
48. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The orchestra tuned their instruments before the concert began.
(B) Elena stacked the clean plates neatly in the cupboard.
(C) Please wait one minuite while I find your reservation.
(D) No mistakes.
49. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The scientist recorded the temperature of each sample.
(B) Malik practiced his lines for the school play all weekend.
(C) Colorful lanterns hung above the crowded festival street.
(D) No mistakes.
50. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The trainer explained which muscel the exercise would strengthen.
(B) Priya labeled each jar of homemade jam with the date.
(C) A row of tall pines lined the edge of the campground.
(D) No mistakes.
Choose the best answer.
51. Which choice best combines the sentences? "The power went out during the storm. We lit candles in the kitchen."
(A) The power went out during the storm, we lit candles in the kitchen.
(B) The power went out during the storm, but we lit candles in the kitchen.
(C) When the power went out during the storm, we lit candles in the kitchen.
(D) We lit candles in the kitchen, and the power going out during the storm.
52. Which sentence does not belong in this paragraph? (1) Honeybees collect nectar from flowers all summer long. (2) Back at the hive, they turn the nectar into honey and store it in the honeycomb. (3) The stored honey feeds the whole colony through the cold winter months. (4) Many people are afraid of getting stung at outdoor picnics.
(A) Sentence 1
(B) Sentence 2
(C) Sentence 3
(D) Sentence 4
53. Choose the word that best joins the thoughts. "The recipe looked complicated; _______, Owen decided to try it anyway."
(A) therefore
(B) nevertheless
(C) for example
(D) meanwhile
54. Which sentence would make the best topic sentence for a paragraph about the benefits of learning to cook?
(A) Learning to cook helps people save money, eat healthier meals, and gain confidence in the kitchen.
(B) My uncle once burned a whole pot of rice on the stove.
(C) Some cookbooks contain hundreds of colorful photographs.
(D) Wooden spoons are gentler on pots than metal ones.
55. Which of these sentences expresses the idea most clearly?
(A) Walking home from practice, the backpack felt heavy on Jordan's shoulders.
(B) Jordan's shoulders, walking home from practice, felt the heavy backpack.
(C) Walking home from practice, Jordan felt the heavy backpack on his shoulders.
(D) The heavy backpack on his shoulders was felt walking home from practice by Jordan.
56. Which choice best combines the sentences? "The museum was crowded on Saturday. We still saw every exhibit."
(A) The museum was crowded on Saturday, we still saw every exhibit.
(B) The museum was crowded on Saturday because we still saw every exhibit.
(C) We still saw every exhibit, and the museum being crowded on Saturday.
(D) Although the museum was crowded on Saturday, we still saw every exhibit.
57. Which sentence would make the best topic sentence for a paragraph about how recycling benefits a school?
(A) The cafeteria usually serves pizza on Fridays.
(B) Blue recycling bins are often kept near the classroom door.
(C) A school recycling program reduces waste, saves money, and teaches students to care for the planet.
(D) Some kinds of paper are thicker than others.
58. Which sentence does not belong in this paragraph? (1) A caterpillar spends its early days eating leaves and growing quickly. (2) The soccer team celebrated its victory with pizza after the game. (3) When it is ready, the caterpillar forms a hard case called a chrysalis. (4) Inside the chrysalis, its body slowly changes into a butterfly.
(A) Sentence 1
(B) Sentence 2
(C) Sentence 3
(D) Sentence 4
59. Choose the word that best joins the thoughts. "Priya wanted to improve her drawing; _______, she practiced sketching for an hour each day."
(A) however
(B) in contrast
(C) for example
(D) therefore
60. Which of these sentences expresses the idea most clearly?
(A) Reading by the window, Sofia lost track of time.
(B) Reading by the window, the time was lost by Sofia.
(C) The time, reading by the window, was lost by Sofia.
(D) Lost track of time was Sofia reading by the window.
Answer Key
Step-by-step explanations for every question are available in the online simulator after completing the test.