Printable version — Practice Test 9
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Practice Test 9
298 questions · 5 separately timed sections. Time each section strictly, as shown at the start of each section.
Section 1: Verbal Skills
60 questions — Time limit: 16 minutes
Choose the word that means the same or about the same as the underlined word.
1. Sparse most nearly means
(A) crowded
(B) scanty
(C) coarse
(D) damp
2. Vital most nearly means
(A) optional
(B) harmful
(C) trivial
(D) essential
3. Bashful most nearly means
(A) shy
(B) boastful
(C) cheerful
(D) clumsy
4. Peril most nearly means
(A) comfort
(B) shelter
(C) danger
(D) fortune
5. Thrifty most nearly means
(A) economical
(B) wasteful
(C) wealthy
(D) generous
6. Gleam most nearly means
(A) fade
(B) crack
(C) darken
(D) shine
7. Dread most nearly means
(A) hope
(B) fear
(C) boredom
(D) joy
8. Rugged most nearly means
(A) delicate
(B) polite
(C) sturdy
(D) hollow
9. Vigorous most nearly means
(A) energetic
(B) feeble
(C) gentle
(D) idle
10. Scorn most nearly means
(A) praise
(B) contempt
(C) respect
(D) sympathy
11. Rove most nearly means
(A) settle
(B) hurry
(C) remain
(D) wander
12. Grim most nearly means
(A) cheerful
(B) tender
(C) gloomy
(D) festive
13. Fierce most nearly means
(A) savage
(B) gentle
(C) timid
(D) feeble
14. Plentiful most nearly means
(A) scarce
(B) meager
(C) abundant
(D) costly
15. Halt most nearly means
(A) begin
(B) stop
(C) linger
(D) continue
Choose the word that means the opposite of the word in capital letters.
16. FICKLE means the opposite of
(A) changeable
(B) constant
(C) cheerful
(D) moody
17. INEPT means the opposite of
(A) clumsy
(B) awkward
(C) foolish
(D) skillful
18. RANCID means the opposite of
(A) fresh
(B) spoiled
(C) sour
(D) greasy
19. FLIMSY means the opposite of
(A) fragile
(B) delicate
(C) sturdy
(D) thin
20. CONGREGATE means the opposite of
(A) assemble
(B) gather
(C) disperse
(D) mingle
21. KINDLE means the opposite of
(A) extinguish
(B) ignite
(C) spark
(D) fuel
22. IMMACULATE means the opposite of
(A) spotless
(B) tidy
(C) pure
(D) filthy
23. POTENT means the opposite of
(A) mighty
(B) weak
(C) forceful
(D) active
24. HAPHAZARD means the opposite of
(A) random
(B) careless
(C) sloppy
(D) methodical
Choose the word that best completes the analogy.
25. Goose is to gosling as kangaroo is to
(A) foal
(B) piglet
(C) joey
(D) chick
26. Copper is to metal as oxygen is to
(A) gas
(B) air
(C) water
(D) breath
27. Import is to export as inhale is to
(A) breathe
(B) oxygen
(C) lungs
(D) exhale
28. Rescue is to save as capture is to
(A) release
(B) seize
(C) prisoner
(D) escape
29. Photographer is to camera as astronomer is to
(A) telescope
(B) stars
(C) planet
(D) observatory
30. Weaver is to cloth as mason is to
(A) brick
(B) trowel
(C) stone
(D) wall
31. Chemist is to laboratory as sailor is to
(A) ocean
(B) ship
(C) anchor
(D) uniform
32. Yolk is to egg as pit is to
(A) fruit
(B) seed
(C) peach
(D) shell
33. Cheese is to milk as butter is to
(A) cream
(B) cow
(C) dairy
(D) yellow
34. Fertilizer is to growth as poison is to
(A) plant
(B) snake
(C) medicine
(D) death
Choose the word that does not belong with the others.
35. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) bee
(B) butterfly
(C) dragonfly
(D) moth
36. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) lettuce
(B) carrot
(C) potato
(D) beet
37. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) drum
(B) cymbal
(C) tambourine
(D) trumpet
38. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) ambulance
(B) school bus
(C) fire truck
(D) police car
39. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) fork
(B) spoon
(C) knife
(D) plate
40. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) soft
(B) firm
(C) rigid
(D) stiff
41. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) ostrich
(B) penguin
(C) pigeon
(D) emu
42. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) lollipop
(B) pretzel
(C) caramel
(D) gumdrop
43. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) crawl
(B) leap
(C) hop
(D) bound
44. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) yield
(B) detour
(C) merge
(D) anchor
45. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) poet
(B) electrician
(C) sculptor
(D) musician
46. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) bottle
(B) pitcher
(C) basket
(D) jug
47. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) arid
(B) damp
(C) moist
(D) humid
48. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) surfing
(B) rowing
(C) bowling
(D) diving
49. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) chapter
(B) index
(C) glossary
(D) engine
50. Which word does not belong with the others?
(A) expand
(B) shrink
(C) swell
(D) enlarge
If the first two statements are true, decide whether the third statement is true, false, or uncertain.
51. Grandpa Vernon is older than Aunt Rosa. Aunt Rosa is older than Cousin Milo. Grandpa Vernon is older than Cousin Milo. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
52. Priya collected more seashells than Devin. Priya collected more seashells than Colette. Devin collected more seashells than Colette. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
53. The library is taller than the fire station. The fire station is taller than the post office. The post office is taller than the library. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
54. Every member of the hiking club owns a compass. Sawyer is a member of the hiking club. Sawyer owns a compass. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
55. No book in the reference section may be borrowed. The atlas Omar wants may be borrowed. The atlas Omar wants is in the reference section. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
56. All of the cookies in the red tin are oatmeal cookies. Some oatmeal cookies contain raisins. Some of the cookies in the red tin contain raisins. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
57. The desk lamp shines as brightly as the floor lamp. The floor lamp shines more brightly than the nightlight. The desk lamp shines more brightly than the nightlight. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
58. Some of the runners on the track team are eighth graders. Some of the runners on the track team have red sneakers. Some of the eighth graders on the track team have red sneakers. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
59. Renata types faster than Bruno. Bruno types faster than Wendell. Wendell types faster than Renata. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
60. The peach is sweeter than the pear. The pear is sweeter than the lime. The peach is sweeter than the lime. If the first two statements are true, the third statement is
(A) true
(B) false
(C) uncertain
Section 2: Quantitative Skills
52 questions — Time limit: 30 minutes
Choose the number that should come next (or that fits the blank) in the series.
1. Look at this series: 6, 14, 22, 30, 38, ... What number should come next?
(A) 45
(B) 46
(C) 47
(D) 44
2. Look at this series: 96, 89, 82, 75, 68, ... What number should come next?
(A) 61
(B) 62
(C) 60
(D) 63
3. Look at this series: 5, 20, 80, 320, ... What number should come next?
(A) 640
(B) 960
(C) 1600
(D) 1280
4. Look at this series: 112, 56, 28, 14, ... What number should come next?
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 7
(D) 4
5. Look at this series: 5, 7, 10, 14, 19, ... What number should come next?
(A) 25
(B) 24
(C) 26
(D) 23
6. Look at this series: 2, 6, 13, 23, 36, ... What number should come next?
(A) 49
(B) 55
(C) 52
(D) 50
7. Look at this series: 4, 8, 5, 10, 7, 14, ... What number should come next?
(A) 28
(B) 11
(C) 12
(D) 10
8. Look at this series: 1, 6, 12, 17, 34, ... What number should come next?
(A) 68
(B) 40
(C) 38
(D) 39
9. Look at this series: 3, 30, 7, 24, 11, 18, ... What number should come next?
(A) 15
(B) 12
(C) 14
(D) 16
10. Look at this series: 5, 40, 9, __, 13, 20. What number should fill the blank?
(A) 11
(B) 35
(C) 30
(D) 45
11. Look at this series: 4, 16, 36, 64, 100, ... What number should come next?
(A) 121
(B) 144
(C) 128
(D) 140
12. Look at this series: 8, 27, 64, 125, ... What number should come next?
(A) 216
(B) 200
(C) 175
(D) 250
13. Look at this series: 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, ... What number should come next?
(A) 18
(B) 20
(C) 26
(D) 21
14. Look at this series: 2, 3, 5, 9, 17, ... What number should come next?
(A) 34
(B) 32
(C) 33
(D) 31
15. Look at this series: 2, 4, 10, 28, 82, ... What number should come next?
(A) 244
(B) 246
(C) 240
(D) 164
16. Look at this series: 0.7, 1.4, 2.8, 5.6, ... What number should come next?
(A) 8.4
(B) 11.2
(C) 10.2
(D) 11.4
17. Look at this series: 1.5, 1.9, 2.3, 2.7, ... What number should come next?
(A) 3.0
(B) 2.9
(C) 3.2
(D) 3.1
18. Look at this series: 2, 6, __, 54, 162. What number should fill the blank?
(A) 12
(B) 24
(C) 18
(D) 16
Examine the quantities and choose the best answer.
19. (a) the sum of the exterior angles of a regular hexagon, one at each vertex (b) the sum of the exterior angles of a regular decagon, one at each vertex (c) the number of degrees in a full circle
(A) (b) is greater than (a) and (c)
(B) (a) is greater than (b), and (b) is greater than (c)
(C) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(D) (c) is less than (a) and (b)
20. (a) the surface area of a cube with edges of 3 centimeters (b) the area of a rectangle 5 centimeters long and 10 centimeters wide (c) the area of a rectangle 6 centimeters long and 9 centimeters wide
(A) (a) and (c) are equal, and each is greater than (b)
(B) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(C) (b) is greater than (a) and (c)
(D) (a) is greater than (b) and (c)
21. (a) 60% of 35 (b) 1/3 of 63 (c) 0.25 × 84
(A) (a) is greater than (b) and (c)
(B) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(C) (c) is less than (a) and (b)
(D) (b) is greater than (a) and (c)
22. (a) the number of degrees the minute hand of a clock turns in 25 minutes (b) the number of degrees the hour hand of a clock turns in 5 hours (c) the number of degrees in a right angle
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (c) is greater than (a) and (b)
(C) (a) is greater than (b), and (b) is greater than (c)
(D) (a) and (b) are equal, and each is greater than (c)
23. (a) 2⁴ (b) 4² (c) 2 × 3²
(A) (a) and (b) are equal, and each is less than (c)
(B) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(C) (c) is less than (a) and (b)
(D) (a) is greater than (b), and (b) is greater than (c)
24. (a) 3/8 + 1/4 (b) 0.6 (c) 5/8
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (b) is greater than (a) and (c)
(C) (a) and (c) are equal, and each is greater than (b)
(D) (a) is less than (b) and less than (c)
25. (a) the measure of each base angle of an isosceles triangle whose vertex angle is 40° (b) the measure of the third angle of a triangle whose other two angles are 65° and 45° (c) the complement of a 20° angle
(A) (a) is greater than (b) and (c)
(B) (c) is greater than (a) and (b)
(C) (a) and (b) are equal, and each is greater than (c)
(D) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
26. (a) 3 × 4 + 6 (b) 3 × (4 + 6) (c) 3 + 4 × 6
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (a) is less than (b) and less than (c)
(C) (c) is greater than (a) and (b)
(D) (a) is greater than (c) and less than (b)
27. (a) the perimeter of a regular octagon with sides of 5 inches (b) the perimeter of a square with sides of 10 inches (c) the perimeter of an equilateral triangle with sides of 14 inches
(A) (a) and (b) are equal, and each is less than (c)
(B) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(C) (c) is less than (a) and (b)
(D) (a) is greater than (b) and (c)
28. (a) the area of a triangle with a base of 12 inches and a height of 9 inches (b) the area of a rectangle that is 9 inches long and 6 inches wide (c) the area of a square with sides of 7 inches
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (c) is greater than (a) and (b)
(C) (a) and (b) are equal, and each is greater than (c)
(D) (a) is less than (b) and less than (c)
29. (a) the average of 15, 21, and 27 (b) 2/5 of 55 (c) 0.75 × 28
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (b) is less than (a) and (c)
(C) (a) is greater than (b) and (c)
(D) (a) and (c) are equal, and each is less than (b)
30. (a) the number of faces of a triangular pyramid (b) the number of edges of a triangular pyramid (c) the number of vertices of a triangular pyramid
(A) (a) and (c) are equal, and each is less than (b)
(B) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(C) (b) is less than (a) and (c)
(D) (a) is greater than (b) and (c)
31. (a) 8 × 9 (b) 210 ÷ 3 (c) 63 + 8
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (a) is greater than (b) and greater than (c)
(C) (c) is greater than (a) and (b)
(D) (a) and (b) are equal, and each is greater than (c)
32. (a) the volume of a cube with edges of 3 centimeters (b) the volume of a rectangular box 3 centimeters long, 3 centimeters wide, and 4 centimeters high (c) the volume of a rectangular box 2 centimeters long, 3 centimeters wide, and 6 centimeters high
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (a) is greater than (b) and (c)
(C) (b) and (c) are equal, and each is greater than (a)
(D) (a) is greater than (b), and (b) is greater than (c)
33. (a) 2/3 (b) 0.7 (c) 5/8
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (b) is less than (a) and (c)
(C) (c) is greater than (a) and (b)
(D) (a) is greater than (c) and less than (b)
34. (a) the length of one side of a square whose perimeter is 52 centimeters (b) the diameter of a circle whose radius is 8 centimeters (c) the length of one side of an equilateral triangle whose perimeter is 54 centimeters
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (a) is less than (b), and (b) is less than (c)
(C) (a) is greater than (b) and (c)
(D) (b) and (c) are equal, and each is greater than (a)
35. (a) 7 × 8 − 6 (b) 2 × (30 − 5) (c) 100 ÷ 2
(A) (a), (b), and (c) are all equal
(B) (a) is greater than (b) and (c)
(C) (c) is less than (a) and (b)
(D) (b) is greater than (a), and (a) is greater than (c)
Work each problem and choose the best answer.
36. What number is 7 more than 25% of 64?
(A) 9
(B) 16
(C) 23
(D) 39
37. What number is 1/3 of 45, decreased by 6?
(A) 9
(B) 15
(C) 21
(D) 39
38. What number is 8 more than the product of 7 and 8?
(A) 23
(B) 48
(C) 56
(D) 64
39. When a number is divided by 5 and then increased by 4, the result is 12. What is the number?
(A) 8
(B) 40
(C) 60
(D) 80
40. What number is 8 times the sum of 7 and 4?
(A) 11
(B) 56
(C) 60
(D) 88
41. What number is 1/6 of 60, decreased by 4?
(A) 6
(B) 10
(C) 14
(D) 56
42. What is 40% of 20 added to 25% of 24?
(A) 6
(B) 8
(C) 14
(D) 26
43. What number is 5 less than the square of 9?
(A) 18
(B) 76
(C) 81
(D) 86
44. What is one half of the difference between 54 and 16?
(A) 19
(B) 35
(C) 38
(D) 70
45. What number is 5 more than the cube of 4?
(A) 12
(B) 59
(C) 64
(D) 69
46. The sum of two numbers is 58, and their difference is 16. What is the larger number?
(A) 21
(B) 37
(C) 58
(D) 74
47. What is the cube of 2 multiplied by the square of 5?
(A) 33
(B) 100
(C) 200
(D) 500
48. What number is 9 more than the square of 7?
(A) 14
(B) 40
(C) 49
(D) 58
49. What number is 7 less than the quotient of 96 and 8?
(A) 5
(B) 12
(C) 19
(D) 89
50. If 3/4 of a number is 18, what is 1/2 of that number?
(A) 6
(B) 12
(C) 18
(D) 24
51. 40% of what number is 50?
(A) 20
(B) 50
(C) 125
(D) 200
52. What number is 4 times the difference between 22 and 13?
(A) 9
(B) 36
(C) 88
(D) 140
Section 3: Reading
62 questions — Time limit: 25 minutes
Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
1. Which sentence best states the main idea of the passage?
(A) After losing an important game through a careless mistake, the narrator chooses to study the loss and learn from it.
(B) The narrator decides that chess is too stressful and gives up the game for good.
(C) Marcus was clearly the strongest chess player in the entire district.
(D) Winning a trophy is the only good reason to enter a chess tournament.
2. According to the passage, how did the narrator lose the queen?
(A) By moving it to capture an unimportant pawn, where Marcus's bishop trapped it
(B) By leaving it undefended while castling the king
(C) By trading it away on purpose to reach the endgame
(D) By letting the clock run out before moving it to safety
3. What rule had Mr. Reyes stressed to the narrator all season?
(A) Always trade queens as early as possible.
(B) Never resign, no matter how hopeless the position looks.
(C) When you are ahead, slow down.
(D) Study your opponent carefully before every match.
4. As used in the passage, the word resigned most nearly means
(A) signed a form again
(B) gave up the game
(C) grew calm and patient
(D) left the building
5. The narrator wanted to "blame the hard chair, the buzzing lights, anything but myself" most likely because
(A) the chair and lights had truly caused the loss
(B) the narrator planned to file a complaint with the judges
(C) the room really was too uncomfortable for anyone to play in
(D) it was hard to admit that the mistake was the narrator's own fault
6. According to the passage, what did the narrator do the night after the tournament?
(A) Threw the chess notebook away in frustration
(B) Set up the board and replayed the game until reaching the blunder
(C) Called Marcus to demand a rematch
(D) Decided to take a long break from chess
7. The author's main purpose in this passage is to
(A) explain the official rules of tournament chess
(B) persuade readers to join a chess club
(C) describe how to set up a chessboard correctly
(D) share a personal story about learning from a painful defeat
8. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
(A) How to Win Every Chess Match
(B) The Long History of the Game of Chess
(C) The Game I Learned From
(D) A Guide to Famous Chess Openings
9. Which sentence best states the main idea of the passage?
(A) Comets are the largest and most dangerous objects in the night sky.
(B) The streaks we call shooting stars are really tiny bits of comet debris burning up in Earth's atmosphere.
(C) Real stars often fall to the ground during the month of August.
(D) Astronomers still cannot explain what causes meteor showers.
10. According to the passage, where do most of these specks of rock and dust come from?
(A) From the surface of the Moon
(B) From distant burning stars
(C) From dust storms on Earth
(D) From comets that leave trails of debris as they orbit the Sun
11. According to the passage, why do certain meteor showers return on nearly the same dates every year?
(A) Because Earth crosses the same debris trail at the same point in its orbit each year
(B) Because comets crash directly into Earth on a yearly schedule
(C) Because the stars line up in the same pattern once a year
(D) Because the Moon blocks the Sun at the same time each year
12. As used in the passage, the word debris most nearly means
(A) bright light
(B) melted ice
(C) scattered bits and fragments
(D) thick fog
13. According to the passage, what happens to most meteoroids that enter Earth's atmosphere?
(A) They crash into the ground as large rocks.
(B) They bounce back into space unharmed.
(C) They burn up completely, miles above the ground.
(D) They slowly float down and land in the ocean.
14. The passage suggests that the term "shooting star" is misleading because
(A) the streak of light is not a star but a small particle burning up
(B) the light is actually caused by faraway planets
(C) real stars are far too small to be seen at night
(D) the streak is really a reflection of city lights
15. The author's main purpose in this passage is to
(A) warn readers about the danger of comets falling to Earth
(B) describe one exciting night of watching the sky
(C) compare comets with the planets in our solar system
(D) explain what causes meteors and yearly meteor showers
16. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
(A) How Telescopes Work
(B) Shooting Stars: The Truth Behind the Streaks
(C) The Life Cycle of a Giant Star
(D) Exploring the Surface of the Moon
17. Which sentence best states the main idea of the passage?
(A) Samuel Morse was the wealthiest inventor of the entire 1800s.
(B) The telegraph was quickly replaced by the telephone and the internet.
(C) Learning Morse code was too difficult for most operators to manage.
(D) The electric telegraph, using Morse code, let people send messages over long distances almost instantly and changed communication.
18. According to the passage, how did an operator send a message with the telegraph?
(A) By speaking into a small microphone
(B) By pressing a key that switched the electric current on and off
(C) By writing letters that were carried along the wire
(D) By flashing a bright light between two towers
19. According to the passage, what is Morse code?
(A) A system in which each letter is represented by its own pattern of dots and dashes
(B) A secret language spoken only by telegraph operators
(C) A machine that prints newspapers automatically
(D) A special kind of wire used to carry electricity across oceans
20. According to the passage, what did Samuel Morse do in 1844?
(A) He sent the message "What hath God wrought" over a wire between Washington and Baltimore.
(B) He built the first telephone line across the ocean.
(C) He invented the electric light bulb.
(D) He opened the first school for telegraph operators.
21. As used in the passage, the word humble most nearly means
(A) loud and powerful
(B) brand-new
(C) simple and modest
(D) costly and rare
22. The statement that "words had outrun the fastest horse" suggests that
(A) horses were no longer allowed to carry the mail
(B) the telegraph wires were built alongside racetracks
(C) Morse enjoyed racing horses in his free time
(D) messages could now travel faster than any rider could carry them
23. The author's main purpose in this passage is to
(A) list every message ever sent by telegraph
(B) explain how the telegraph worked and why it was important
(C) argue that Morse code should be taught in every school
(D) describe the daily routine of a single telegraph operator
24. Which of the following would be the best title for this passage?
(A) The Invention of the Telephone
(B) Famous Railroads of the 1800s
(C) Dots, Dashes, and the Birth of Instant Communication
(D) How to Become a Telegraph Operator Today
25. Which sentence best states the main idea of the passage?
(A) Harriet Tubman was the first person to build the Underground Railroad.
(B) After escaping slavery, Harriet Tubman risked her life again and again to lead others to freedom.
(C) Harriet Tubman spent most of her life working as a nurse for the Union Army.
(D) Harriet Tubman was born free in the North and later chose to move to the South.
26. According to the passage, Harriet Tubman was born
(A) into slavery in Maryland around 1822
(B) into a free family in Pennsylvania
(C) in the North shortly after the Civil War
(D) on a farm in New York in the year 1849
27. According to the passage, the Underground Railroad was
(A) a real train that carried people beneath the city
(B) a large boat that sailed north along the coast
(C) a secret network of trails, safe houses, and helpers
(D) a law that made slavery illegal across the South
28. According to the passage, Tubman served the Union Army during the Civil War in all of the following ways EXCEPT
(A) as a nurse who cared for wounded soldiers
(B) as a scout who gathered information
(C) as a spy who worked behind enemy lines
(D) as a general who commanded soldiers in battle
29. It can be inferred from the passage that Tubman kept returning to the South because
(A) she had never truly reached freedom in the North
(B) the Union Army had ordered her to go back
(C) she was unwilling to be free while others remained enslaved
(D) she hoped to earn a large reward for each journey
30. As used in the passage, the word "fierce" most nearly means
(A) powerful
(B) gentle
(C) sudden
(D) foolish
31. The author's main purpose in the passage is to
(A) explain how to travel safely at night
(B) describe the life and brave deeds of Harriet Tubman
(C) argue that the Civil War could have been avoided
(D) teach readers how the first railroads were built
32. Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
(A) The History of Railroads in America
(B) A Traveler's Guide to the State of Maryland
(C) Nursing on the Battlefields of the Civil War
(D) Harriet Tubman: A Lifelong Fight for Freedom
33. Which sentence best states the main idea of the passage?
(A) Grocery stores are the only reason that food banks are able to exist.
(B) A food bank is mainly a place where people go to buy cheap food.
(C) A food bank depends on donations and volunteers to collect food and give it to families in need.
(D) Sorting the food is by far the hardest and most important job at a food bank.
34. According to the passage, one source of the food a food bank receives is
(A) grocery stores that donate items they cannot sell
(B) restaurants that sell their leftover meals to the food bank
(C) families who are required by law to give away food
(D) the government, which grows crops on public farms
35. According to the passage, when volunteers sort the food, they
(A) cook it into meals for families to eat right away
(B) throw away anything that is not a fresh fruit or vegetable
(C) deliver it directly to each family's home
(D) check that items are not expired or damaged and group them into categories
36. According to the passage, some food banks send boxes to community centers so that
(A) the food will stay frozen for a much longer time
(B) people who live far away or cannot travel can still receive help
(C) volunteers will have less food to sort each day
(D) grocery stores can buy back the food they donated
37. It can be inferred from the passage that a food bank would most likely have to close if
(A) a grocery store donated too many canned goods at once
(B) families came to pick up groceries every single week
(C) volunteers spent extra time carefully sorting the food
(D) no one was willing to donate food or give their time
38. As used in the passage, the word "steady" most nearly means
(A) sudden
(B) constant
(C) weak
(D) rare
39. The author's main purpose in the passage is to
(A) explain how a food bank collects food and gives it to people in need
(B) convince readers to open a grocery store of their own
(C) describe the best way to grow fruits and vegetables at home
(D) warn readers about the dangers of eating expired food
40. Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
(A) The History of the American Grocery Store
(B) How to Grow Your Own Fruits and Vegetables
(C) How a Food Bank Feeds a Community
(D) The Life of a Union Army Nurse
Choose the word that means the same or about the same as the underlined word.
41. to shun most people
(A) greet
(B) follow
(C) avoid
(D) trust
42. to soothe a child
(A) comfort
(B) scold
(C) startle
(D) wake
43. to badger a person
(A) praise
(B) ignore
(C) assist
(D) pester
44. to stifle a smile
(A) release
(B) suppress
(C) widen
(D) share
45. to crave water
(A) reject
(B) desire
(C) waste
(D) fear
46. to roam at night
(A) wander
(B) rest
(C) hurry
(D) hide
47. to goad him on
(A) calm
(B) stop
(C) urge
(D) praise
48. to spurn a friend
(A) embrace
(B) greet
(C) trust
(D) reject
49. a gruff voice
(A) harsh
(B) cheerful
(C) timid
(D) clear
50. a gaunt face
(A) round
(B) cheerful
(C) thin
(D) pale
51. a fleeting look
(A) lasting
(B) brief
(C) distant
(D) gentle
52. an evasive answer
(A) honest
(B) direct
(C) lengthy
(D) vague
53. a wobbly table
(A) solid
(B) heavy
(C) shaky
(D) spotless
54. a dreary morning
(A) gloomy
(B) bright
(C) festive
(D) mild
55. a surly reply
(A) friendly
(B) timid
(C) generous
(D) rude
56. a look of malice
(A) kindness
(B) spite
(C) sorrow
(D) respect
57. an act of folly
(A) wisdom
(B) courage
(C) foolishness
(D) patience
58. havoc in the house
(A) chaos
(B) order
(C) silence
(D) repair
59. an old feud
(A) bond
(B) quarrel
(C) truce
(D) greeting
60. a knack with people
(A) dislike
(B) fear
(C) burden
(D) talent
61. to face his wrath
(A) mercy
(B) delight
(C) anger
(D) calm
62. an act of valor
(A) bravery
(B) cowardice
(C) weakness
(D) caution
Section 4: Mathematics
64 questions — Time limit: 45 minutes
Choose the best answer.
1. In the number 736,482, the digit 3 stands for a value of
(A) 3,000
(B) 300,000
(C) 30,000
(D) 3
2. In the decimal 0.83619, the digit 1 is in which place?
(A) ten-thousandths
(B) thousandths
(C) hundredths
(D) hundred-thousandths
3. What is 4.7683 rounded to the nearest hundredth?
(A) 4.77
(B) 4.76
(C) 4.8
(D) 4.768
4. Which is the best estimate of 189 × 32?
(A) 600
(B) 60,000
(C) 3,000
(D) 6,000
5. Which of the following numbers is prime?
(A) 111
(B) 113
(C) 117
(D) 119
6. Which of the following numbers is divisible by 8?
(A) 124
(B) 132
(C) 168
(D) 148
7. What is the greatest common factor of 42 and 56?
(A) 7
(B) 2
(C) 14
(D) 28
8. What is the least common multiple of 9 and 12?
(A) 36
(B) 108
(C) 3
(D) 18
9. The product of two odd numbers is always
(A) even
(B) sometimes even and sometimes odd
(C) a prime number
(D) odd
10. The expression 4³ has a value of
(A) 12
(B) 64
(C) 81
(D) 7
11. Between which two consecutive whole numbers does √75 lie?
(A) 7 and 8
(B) 9 and 10
(C) 37 and 38
(D) 8 and 9
12. Which of the following numbers is a perfect cube?
(A) 100
(B) 150
(C) 200
(D) 125
13. What is the value of 5 + 6 × 2?
(A) 17
(B) 22
(C) 60
(D) 13
14. Which percent is equal to the fraction 7/20?
(A) 7%
(B) 35%
(C) 20%
(D) 70%
15. The decimal 0.24 is equal to which fraction in lowest terms?
(A) 6/24
(B) 1/4
(C) 6/25
(D) 3/25
16. The absolute value of a number is
(A) the number with its sign made negative
(B) the opposite of the number
(C) the largest digit in the number
(D) the distance of the number from zero on the number line
17. On a number line, which of these numbers lies farthest to the right?
(A) −5
(B) 2
(C) −9
(D) 1
18. Two angles whose measures add up to 180° are called
(A) supplementary
(B) complementary
(C) vertical
(D) right
19. A triangle that contains one angle greater than 90° is called
(A) an acute triangle
(B) a right triangle
(C) an obtuse triangle
(D) an equilateral triangle
20. A polygon with exactly seven sides is called
(A) a pentagon
(B) a hexagon
(C) an octagon
(D) a heptagon
21. A part of the circumference of a circle is called
(A) a chord
(B) an arc
(C) a radius
(D) a sector
22. Which metric unit is most appropriate for measuring the distance between two cities?
(A) kilometers
(B) meters
(C) centimeters
(D) millimeters
23. What is the range of the data set 12, 5, 9, 20, 7?
(A) 20
(B) 9
(C) 15
(D) 5
24. A bag holds 3 red marbles and 5 blue marbles. If you draw one marble without looking, what is the probability that it is red?
(A) 3/5
(B) 3/8
(C) 5/8
(D) 1/2
Solve each problem and choose the best answer.
25. The chess club fundraiser baked 60 brownies. By noon, 3/5 of them had been sold. How many brownies were sold?
(A) 24
(B) 36
(C) 12
(D) 100
26. At the planetarium gift shop, a clerk used 1/4 of a roll of star stickers in the morning and 3/8 of the roll in the afternoon. What fraction of the roll did she use in all?
(A) 4/12
(B) 3/8
(C) 1/8
(D) 5/8
27. A food-bank volunteer has 9.6 pounds of rice and scoops it into bags that each hold 0.8 pound. How many bags can be filled?
(A) 12
(B) 8.8
(C) 1.2
(D) 7.68
28. The chess club has 3/4 pound of trail mix to sell and packs it into bags that each hold 1/8 pound. How many bags can be filled?
(A) 6
(B) 3/32
(C) 24
(D) 8
29. A telescope model at the planetarium gift shop normally costs $40.00. Members get a 15% discount. How much does a member pay?
(A) $6.00
(B) $46.00
(C) $34.00
(D) $25.00
30. A wooden chess set at the club's fundraiser table is priced at $50.00. It is marked 10% off, and then a 6% sales tax is added to the sale price. What is the total cost?
(A) $45.00
(B) $47.70
(C) $53.00
(D) $44.70
31. A food-bank drive buys $80.00 worth of canned goods before tax. A 5% sales tax is added. What is the total with tax?
(A) $4.00
(B) $76.00
(C) $88.00
(D) $84.00
32. At the planetarium gift shop, a star globe is marked 25% off and now sells for $45.00. What was its original price?
(A) $56.25
(B) $33.75
(C) $60.00
(D) $67.50
33. At the chess club, the ratio of beginners to advanced players is 3 to 2. If there are 45 players in all, how many are beginners?
(A) 27
(B) 18
(C) 9
(D) 15
34. The planetarium gift shop sells 3 glow-in-the-dark planets for $7.50. At that rate, how much do 8 planets cost?
(A) $2.50
(B) $20.00
(C) $24.00
(D) $60.00
35. A soup recipe at the food-bank kitchen uses 4 cups of broth for every 3 cans of beans. How many cups of broth are needed for 12 cans of beans?
(A) 9
(B) 48
(C) 36
(D) 16
36. Solve for x: 7x - 4 = 31
(A) 3 6/7
(B) 35
(C) 4
(D) 5
37. The planetarium charges a $12 flat fee for a group plus $4 for each student. A school group paid $52 in all. How many students were in the group?
(A) 13
(B) 16
(C) 10
(D) 40
38. Five more than four times a number is 41. What is the number?
(A) 9
(B) 11 1/2
(C) 36
(D) 10
39. Solve for x: x/4 + 3 = 10
(A) 52
(B) 28
(C) 1 3/4
(D) 7
40. Over five days, a food-bank drive collected these numbers of cans: 40, 55, 38, 55, and 62. What was the mean number of cans collected per day?
(A) 55
(B) 24
(C) 50
(D) 62
41. A chess player's game lengths, in minutes, were 22, 35, 18, 40, and 27. What is the median length?
(A) 27
(B) 28.4
(C) 22
(D) 40
42. A food-bank drive hangs a banner that is 8 yards long. How many feet long is the banner?
(A) 96
(B) 2 2/3
(C) 11
(D) 24
43. A bag of meteorite candy at the planetarium gift shop weighs 2.5 pounds. How many ounces does it weigh?
(A) 30
(B) 40
(C) 25
(D) 32
44. The chess club puts $1,500 from its fundraiser into an account that pays 4% simple interest per year. How much interest does it earn in 3 years?
(A) $60
(B) $1,680
(C) $180
(D) $120
45. A rectangular garden plot is 24 feet long and 17 feet wide. How many feet of fencing are needed to enclose the entire plot?
(A) 82 feet
(B) 408 feet
(C) 41 feet
(D) 164 feet
46. A triangular sail has a base of 16 feet and a height of 9 feet. What is the area of the sail?
(A) 144 square feet
(B) 25 square feet
(C) 72 square feet
(D) 12.5 square feet
47. A patio is shaped like a large rectangle 22 feet by 15 feet with a smaller rectangle 9 feet by 5 feet removed from one corner. What is the area of the patio?
(A) 330 square feet
(B) 375 square feet
(C) 300 square feet
(D) 285 square feet
48. The front of a doghouse is shaped like a square 4 feet on each side topped by a triangle with a base of 4 feet and a height of 3 feet. What is the total area of the front?
(A) 28 square feet
(B) 22 square feet
(C) 16 square feet
(D) 19 square feet
49. A fish tank shaped like a rectangular prism is 20 inches long, 10 inches wide, and 12 inches high. What is its volume?
(A) 2,400 cubic inches
(B) 1,120 cubic inches
(C) 42 cubic inches
(D) 240 cubic inches
50. A storage bin is a cube with edges 6 inches long. What is its volume?
(A) 36 cubic inches
(B) 18 cubic inches
(C) 216 cubic inches
(D) 72 cubic inches
51. In a triangle, two of the angles measure 47° and 68°. What is the measure of the third angle?
(A) 115°
(B) 133°
(C) 112°
(D) 65°
52. Two angles are complementary, and the larger angle is twice as large as the smaller one. What is the measure of the smaller angle?
(A) 60°
(B) 45°
(C) 30°
(D) 15°
53. Three angles lie along a straight line and together form a straight angle. Two of them measure 65° and 72°. What is the measure of the third angle?
(A) 43°
(B) 137°
(C) 115°
(D) 108°
54. A cyclist rides 54 miles in 3 hours at a steady pace. What is the cyclist's average speed?
(A) 162 miles per hour
(B) 18 miles per hour
(C) 51 miles per hour
(D) 27 miles per hour
55. A train travels at a constant speed of 72 miles per hour for 40 minutes. How far does it travel?
(A) 2,880 miles
(B) 28.8 miles
(C) 54 miles
(D) 48 miles
56. Two towns are 210 miles apart. A bus travels between them at an average speed of 60 miles per hour. How long does the trip take?
(A) 3 hours 30 minutes
(B) 3 hours 50 minutes
(C) 3 hours 10 minutes
(D) 4 hours
57. A bag holds 5 green marbles, 8 yellow marbles, and 7 orange marbles, all the same size. If one marble is drawn at random, what is the probability that it is green?
(A) 1/3
(B) 1/4
(C) 1/5
(D) 1/20
58. A spinner is divided into 12 equal sections numbered 1 through 12. What is the probability that the spinner lands on a number that is NOT a multiple of 4?
(A) 1/4
(B) 1/3
(C) 2/3
(D) 3/4
59. What is the value of −7 + 12 − (−5) − 8?
(A) −8
(B) 18
(C) 2
(D) −18
60. What is the value of 2⁴ + 3³?
(A) 43
(B) 17
(C) 25
(D) 35
61. What is the value of 5 + 3 × 2³?
(A) 64
(B) 221
(C) 23
(D) 29
62. A jacket is priced at $80. A 25% discount is applied, and then a 6% sales tax is added to the discounted price. What is the total cost?
(A) $60.00
(B) $63.60
(C) $64.80
(D) $56.40
63. A store sells notebooks for $3.25 each and pens for $1.40 each. Marcus buys 4 notebooks and 5 pens. What is the total cost?
(A) $13.00
(B) $7.00
(C) $20.00
(D) $23.25
64. Six friends share the cost of a $114 group ticket equally, and each friend also pays $3.50 for a snack. How much does each friend pay in all?
(A) $19.00
(B) $22.50
(C) $26.30
(D) $19.58
Section 5: Language
60 questions — Time limit: 25 minutes
Look for errors in punctuation, capitalization, or usage. If there is no error, choose (D).
1. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The two finalists shook hands before the match began.
(B) Our team will compete in the state Championship next Saturday.
(C) Grandmaster Ruiz studied the board and moved her knight.
(D) No mistakes.
2. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) We spread a blanket on the hill and waited for dark.
(B) The telescope belonged to my aunt, who is an astronomer.
(C) The stars near the horizon was harder to see through the haze.
(D) No mistakes.
3. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Devon flipped the bicycle over to reach the rear wheel.
(B) After the tire was patched, he pumped it up and tested the brakes.
(C) The chain had slipped off, so we guided it back onto the gears.
(D) No mistakes.
4. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The volunteers aprons were stacked neatly by the sink.
(B) Mrs. Alvarez ladled soup into each bowl with a steady hand.
(C) By noon the line stretched all the way to the door.
(D) No mistakes.
5. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The guide led us through the hall of ancient sculpture.
(B) Photographs are not allowed in the room with the fragile tapestries.
(C) Yesterday we walk through the wing devoted to modern painting.
(D) No mistakes.
6. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) My brother taught me how to castle early in the game.
(B) The trophy was shared between Marcus and I after the tie.
(C) She sacrificed her bishop to open a path for the queen.
(D) No mistakes.
7. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Orion's Belt was the first pattern we recognized in the sky.
(B) My father pointed out a planet that glowed steadily above the trees.
(C) We stayed out past midnight, hoping to catch a shooting star.
(D) No mistakes.
8. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The wrench slipped from my hand, I scraped my knuckle on the frame.
(B) We tightened every bolt and spun the wheel to check for wobble.
(C) Because the brake pads were worn, we replaced them with new ones.
(D) No mistakes.
9. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Each morning the cooks chop vegetables for the day's stew.
(B) A neighbor donated three large crates of fresh bread.
(C) The pot of beans need another hour to simmer.
(D) No mistakes.
10. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The guides voice echoed through the marble gallery.
(B) Visitors admired a vase that was older than the pyramids.
(C) We could not believe how tiny the ancient coins were.
(D) No mistakes.
11. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The clock ticked loudly as she considered her final move.
(B) Neither player wanted to offer a draw so early in the match.
(C) He opened with a pawn, and his opponent mirrored the move.
(D) No mistakes.
12. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The night grew cold, so we wrapped ourselves in a quilt.
(B) Last summer we see the Milky Way from the top of the ridge.
(C) A faint red glow marked the spot where Mars had risen.
(D) No mistakes.
13. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The repair shop on Fifth Street sold us a new inner tube.
(B) My cousin knows how to straighten a bent wheel with a spoke wrench.
(C) We fixed the flat last tuesday before the group ride.
(D) No mistakes.
14. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Him and the other cooks arrived before sunrise to start the broth.
(B) The director thanked us for staying until the last dish was clean.
(C) Trays of warm rolls disappeared faster than we could refill them.
(D) No mistakes.
15. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The docent explained how the mosaic had been assembled.
(B) The exhibit was crowded we had to wait to see the mummy.
(C) A velvet rope kept visitors from touching the delicate frames.
(D) No mistakes.
16. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Her ranking climbed after she defeated the defending champion.
(B) The referee reminded the players to silence their phones.
(C) With only seconds left, he found the checkmate he needed.
(D) No mistakes.
17. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The constellations in the winter sky is easy to identify.
(B) We downloaded an app that labels every star we point it at.
(C) The cold air made the distant planets look especially sharp.
(D) No mistakes.
18. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) We oiled the chain until it ran smoothly again.
(B) The front tire needed more air, so we found a pump.
(C) Maria's helmet had a crack, and she replaced it right away.
(D) No mistakes.
19. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The pantry shelves were nearly empty by the end of the week.
(B) A local bakery drops off extra loaves every Friday.
(C) Last night the crew serve more than two hundred meals.
(D) No mistakes.
20. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The gift shop sold postcards of every major painting.
(B) The childrens section had hands-on models of the planets.
(C) Our tour ended in a courtyard full of blooming jasmine.
(D) No mistakes.
21. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Rows of ripe tomatoes hung heavily along the wooden fence.
(B) The volunteers raised there watering cans and soaked the dry soil.
(C) A cluster of sunflowers leaned toward the bright afternoon sun.
(D) No mistakes.
22. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The museum's newest exhibit celebrated the early days of the telegraph.
(B) Visitors watched an operator tap out a message in Morse code.
(C) Long wires stretched across the display to show how signals traveled.
(D) No mistakes.
23. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) A sudden lightning storm did not effect the steady clicking of the machine.
(B) The guide explained how each dot and dash stood for a letter.
(C) We leaned close to hear the faint taps from the old key.
(D) No mistakes.
24. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The point guard dribbled quickly toward the basket.
(B) Our bench cheered loudly after every made shot.
(C) The forward whom scored the winning basket grinned at the crowd.
(D) No mistakes.
25. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) This recipe uses fewer salt than the version we made last week.
(B) We chopped three carrots and dropped them into the pot.
(C) The broth simmered gently on the back burner.
(D) No mistakes.
26. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) Bees drifted from blossom to blossom in the warm morning air.
(B) My grandmother pulled a few weeds from the flower bed.
(C) The climbing beans wound their way up the tall wooden poles.
(D) No mistakes.
27. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The home team scored the first ten points of the game.
(B) Our center jumped higher then any player on the other team.
(C) The coach called a timeout with two minutes left.
(D) No mistakes.
28. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) We stirred the pot until the onions turned soft and golden.
(B) A pinch of pepper gave the broth a gentle kick.
(C) Everyone at the table liked the soup accept my little brother.
(D) No mistakes.
29. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) We crossed the wide bridge into arizona around noon.
(B) Dad packed the trunk with snacks and folding chairs.
(C) We sang along to the radio for the first hundred miles.
(D) No mistakes.
30. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The referee blew the whistle to start the second half.
(B) Fans waved bright banners high above their heads.
(C) Our team passed the ball quickly around the arc.
(D) No mistakes.
31. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The oldest machine in the room still worked perfectly.
(B) A short film described how messages once crossed the country.
(C) The operator smiled and said, "The line is clear now".
(D) No mistakes.
32. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The old apple tree finally began to bloom in April.
(B) The rose bush lost it's petals after the heavy rain.
(C) Thick green ivy covered the entire garden wall.
(D) No mistakes.
33. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The soup grew more thicker as it cooked on the stove.
(B) We added a handful of noodles near the end.
(C) The warm bowl felt wonderful on such a cold day.
(D) No mistakes.
34. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The highway curved gently through the green hills.
(B) After we filled the gas tank we drove until sunset.
(C) A row of tall pines lined both sides of the road.
(D) No mistakes.
35. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) We rinsed the beans and let them soak overnight.
(B) The steam rose slowly from the bubbling pot.
(C) My aunt added a bay leaf for extra flavor.
(D) No mistakes.
36. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The map slid off the seat every time we turned.
(B) We stopped at a small diner for an early lunch.
(C) My tired brother wanted to lay down across the back seat.
(D) No mistakes.
37. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) I borrowed a book called the history of the telegraph from the gift shop.
(B) A glass case held tools used by early inventors.
(C) We listened to a recording of a real telegraph message.
(D) No mistakes.
38. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) We planted herbs in the small bed beside the porch.
(B) The pumpkins spread their vines across the damp soil.
(C) Of the two rose gardens, the one by the gate was the most colorful.
(D) No mistakes.
39. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) We reached the coast just as the sun began to set.
(B) Seagulls circled above the crowded parking lot.
(C) The salty breeze filled the car when we rolled down the windows.
(D) No mistakes.
40. Choose the sentence that contains an error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The final quarter started with the score tied.
(B) We couldn't barely hear the buzzer over the roaring crowd.
(C) Our best shooter sank two free throws to win the game.
(D) No mistakes.
Look for mistakes in spelling only.
41. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The electrician installed bright new lights above the kitchen counter.
(B) There was a peculier smell coming from the science laboratory.
(C) Grandmother folded the quilt and placed it inside the cedar chest.
(D) No mistakes.
42. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The artist used permanant ink to sign the bottom of the canvas.
(B) Two robins built a nest in the maple tree by our porch.
(C) The mail carrier delivered a large package to our front door.
(D) No mistakes.
43. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The aquarium opened a new exhibit about coral reefs last week.
(B) Rosa watered the ferns hanging along the shaded balcony.
(C) All hospital personel must wear an identification badge on duty.
(D) No mistakes.
44. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The engineer carefully recorded each measurement in her notebook.
(B) Warm sunlight spread across the meadow in the early morning.
(C) The violinist practiced the difficult passage until it sounded smooth.
(D) No mistakes.
45. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The doctor said regular exercise improves your phisical health.
(B) Nadia arranged fresh daisies in a tall glass vase.
(C) The campers roasted marshmallows over the glowing fire.
(D) No mistakes.
46. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The teacher handed back the graded essays on Friday.
(B) The old map was the family's most treasured posession.
(C) Snowflakes drifted past the window during the quiet evening.
(D) No mistakes.
47. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The choir practiced a new song for the spring festival.
(B) A curious squirrel darted across the frosty lawn.
(C) Dad mashed the potatos with butter and a pinch of salt.
(D) No mistakes.
48. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The plumber replaced the leaky faucet in the kitchen sink.
(B) The gardener stacked clay pots beside the greenhouse door.
(C) Ms. Okafor explained the difference between weather and climate.
(D) No mistakes.
49. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The wise judge set aside every predjudice before the trial.
(B) Liam collects smooth stones from the creek behind his house.
(C) The bakery donated fresh bread to the shelter downtown.
(D) No mistakes.
50. Choose the sentence that contains a spelling error. If there is no error, choose (D).
(A) The tour guide pointed out the tallest tower in the city.
(B) Our teacher corrected the pronounciation of the French word.
(C) Heavy rain flooded the low road near the bridge.
(D) No mistakes.
Choose the best answer.
51. Which choice best combines the sentences? "The museum was crowded. We still managed to see every exhibit."
(A) The museum was crowded, we still managed to see every exhibit.
(B) The museum was crowded, so we still managed to see every exhibit.
(C) Even though the museum was crowded, we managed to see every exhibit.
(D) We managed to see every exhibit, and the museum being crowded.
52. Which sentence would make the best topic sentence for a paragraph about the benefits of drinking enough water?
(A) Drinking enough water each day boosts your energy, sharpens your focus, and keeps your body healthy.
(B) Some water bottles are made of stainless steel.
(C) My little brother spilled his glass of water at dinner.
(D) The water fountain near the gym was finally repaired yesterday.
53. Which sentence does not belong in this paragraph? (1) Honeybees live together in large, well-organized colonies. (2) Worker bees gather nectar from flowers to make honey. (3) They tell the others where to find food by performing a special dance. (4) The new skateboard ramp opened at the park on Saturday.
(A) Sentence 1
(B) Sentence 2
(C) Sentence 3
(D) Sentence 4
54. Which of these sentences expresses the idea most clearly?
(A) Jogging through the park, a deer was spotted by Theo near the pond.
(B) Jogging through the park, Theo spotted a deer near the pond.
(C) Jogging through the park, the pond was where Theo spotted a deer.
(D) A deer near the pond, jogging through the park, was spotted by Theo.
55. Choose the word that best joins the thoughts. "Priya practiced the piano every day; _______, she won first place at the recital."
(A) however
(B) for example
(C) consequently
(D) meanwhile
56. Which choice best combines the sentences? "The power went out. The whole family kept playing board games by candlelight."
(A) The power went out, the whole family kept playing board games by candlelight.
(B) The power went out because the whole family kept playing board games by candlelight.
(C) The whole family kept playing board games by candlelight, and the power going out.
(D) When the power went out, the whole family kept playing board games by candlelight.
57. Which sentence would make the best topic sentence for a paragraph about the importance of getting enough sleep?
(A) My alarm clock has a snooze button that I press far too often.
(B) Getting enough sleep each night strengthens your memory, steadies your mood, and protects your health.
(C) Some pillows are filled with soft goose feathers.
(D) I stayed up late finishing my science project on Tuesday.
58. Which of these sentences expresses the idea most clearly?
(A) Walking home from school, Maria found a wallet lying on the sidewalk.
(B) Walking home from school, a wallet was found by Maria on the sidewalk.
(C) Walking home from school, the sidewalk was where Maria found a wallet.
(D) A wallet on the sidewalk, walking home from school, was found by Maria.
59. Which sentence does not belong in this paragraph? (1) The Sahara is the largest hot desert in the world. (2) During the day, its sand can grow scorching hot. (3) Our class is planning a bake sale for next month. (4) At night, temperatures in the desert can drop sharply.
(A) Sentence 1
(B) Sentence 2
(C) Sentence 3
(D) Sentence 4
60. Choose the word that best joins the thoughts. "The recipe looked complicated; _______, it turned out to be simple to follow."
(A) therefore
(B) for instance
(C) in addition
(D) however
Answer Key
Step-by-step explanations for every question are available in the online simulator after completing the test.